Daily Current Affairs Quiz - 23rd & 24th August 2026
Aug 25 2026
Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2026 of 23rd & 24th August 2026. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2026 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.
1) Recently, which bank successfully completed its maiden USD 500 million bond issuance through its IFSC Banking Unit (IBU) at GIFT City, Gandhinagar?
(a) HDFC Bank Limited
(b) ICICI Bank Limited
(c) IDFC First Bank Limited
(d) Axis Bank Limited
(e) IndusInd Bank Limited
2) Recently, the RBI decided to close the concessional swap facility for FCNR(B) deposits on which date?
(a) 31 July 2026
(b) 31 August 2026
(c) 30 June 2026
(d) 30 September 2026
(e) 31 October 2026
3) According to RBI data, bank deposit growth accelerated to what level as of 31 July 2026, marking its highest level since December 2016?
(a) 12.7%
(b) 13.5%
(c) 14.2%
(d) 15.4%
(e) 15.5%
4) Recently, Wizzmoni Financial Services Ltd. partnered with which airline to launch the co-branded “Wizz Voyager Multi-Currency Card”?
(a) Emirates
(b) Oman Air
(c) Qatar Airways
(d) Etihad Airways
(e) Singapore Airlines
5) Recently, SEBI proposed reforms related to International Securities Identification Numbers (ISINs). Consider the following statements:
- An ISIN is a unique 12-character alphanumeric code used to identify financial instruments globally.
- The first 2 characters of an ISIN represent the country code.
- The next 9 characters form the security identifier.
- The final character is a check digit used for validation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3
(d) All the above
(e) None of the above
6) According to the Bank of Baroda Economics Research Department, what was the total value of investment announcements in India between April 1 and August 5, 2026, during FY 2026–27?
(a) ₹14.98 trillion
(b) ₹20.75 trillion
(c) ₹26.75 trillion
(d) ₹30.50 trillion
(e) ₹51.00 trillion
7) Recently, SEBI proposed allowing Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to participate in which of the following markets to broaden the participant base and enhance liquidity?
(a) Exchange-Traded Commodity Derivatives (ETCDs)
(b) Government Securities Market
(c) Corporate Bond Market
(d) Equity Mutual Fund Market
(e) Insurance Derivatives Market
8 ) According to recent reports, Apple Pay is expected to initially launch in India with support for which payment method?
(a) UPI-based payments only
(b) Visa and Mastercard card payments
(c) RuPay card payments only
(d) Aadhaar-enabled payments
(e) NEFT-based payments
9) Recently, SEBI proposed allowing eligible overseas investors to complete digital KYC without physically travelling to India. Which of the following is NOT covered under this proposal?
(a) Non-Resident Indians (NRIs)
(b) Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs)
(c) Foreign nationals
(d) Persons Resident Outside India (PROIs) in FATF-compliant countries
(e) Individuals seeking registration as Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs)
10) Recently, State Bank of India (SBI) planned to raise funds through five-year US dollar-denominated bonds under which programme?
(a) $5-billion External Commercial Borrowing Programme
(b) $10-billion Medium-Term Note (MTN) Programme
(c) $15-billion Global Bond Programme
(d) $10-billion Foreign Currency Deposit Programme
(e) $20-billion International Debt Programme
11) According to the “Indian Semiconductor Startup Landscape 2026” report, how much funding did Indian semiconductor start-ups raise in H1 2026?
(a) $61.9 million
(b) $51.9 million
(c) $71.6 million
(d) $76.6 million
(e) $81.9 million
12) According to recent data, the total principal repayment and interest payment made by Indian Railways towards lease charges to IRFC and the Ministry of Finance increased to what amount in FY 2025–26?
(a) ₹28,702 crore
(b) ₹35,640 crore
(c) ₹40,250 crore
(d) ₹46,538 crore
(e) ₹50,000 crore
13) Recently, the Supreme Court modified its May 2025 judgment and reduced the mandatory legal practice requirement for entry-level judicial service examinations from 3 years to how many years?
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 years
(d) 3 years
(e) 5 years
14) Recently, which toll-free helpline number was launched in West Bengal to report complaints related to extortion?
(a) 155334
(b) 155335
(c) 155337
(d) 155339
(e) 155330
15) Recently, MeitY notified the Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme (MPMS) with a budgetary outlay of how much to strengthen India’s mobile phone manufacturing ecosystem?
(a) ₹25,000 crore
(b) ₹40,000 crore
(c) ₹50,000 crore
(d) ₹62,500 crore
(e) ₹75,000 crore
16) Recently, which organisation developed India’s first soil texture map providing detailed soil information for every hectare of the country?
(a) Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI)
(b) National Bureau of Soil Survey and Land Use Planning (NBSS&LUP)
(c) National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)
(d) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
(e) Soil and Land Use Survey of India (SLUSI)
17) Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the establishment of a Bench of the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh in which Union Territory?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Puducherry
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Ladakh
(e) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
18) Recently, the Government of India permitted duty-free import of how much raw sugar under the Tariff Rate Quota (TRQ) system until 31 October 2026?
(a) 5 lakh metric tonnes
(b) 7.5 lakh metric tonnes
(c) 10 lakh metric tonnes
(d) 12.5 lakh metric tonnes
(e) 15 lakh metric tonnes
19) Consider the following statements regarding the National Teachers’ Awards 2026:
- The National Teachers’ Awards 2026 will be conferred by President Droupadi Murmu on 5 September 2026.
- A total of 48 school teachers have been selected for the 2026 awards.
- The awardees represent 27 States, 7 Union Territories and 6 Central Government organisations.
- The National Teachers’ Award was instituted in 1958.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3
(d) All the above
(e) None of the above
20) Who has been selected for the 47th Sarala Puraskar 2026 for the poetry collection ‘Bishwas De Pruthwi’?
(a) Guru Durga Charan Ranbir
(b) Damodar Behera
(c) Ashutosh Parida
(d) Bansidhar Panda
(e) Prabha Publication
21) Recently, ‘Mangrol’, the third Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC), was delivered to the Indian Navy by which organisation?
(a) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
(b) Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers
(c) Cochin Shipyard Limited
(d) Hindustan Shipyard Limited
(e) Goa Shipyard Limited
22) Recently, Shinjirō Koizumi, who undertook his first-ever visit to India from August 19–20, 2026, holds which position in Japan?
(a) Defence Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Foreign Minister
(d) Finance Minister
(e) Chief Cabinet Secretary
23) Who was elected as the 23rd President of the People’s Republic of Bangladesh for a five-year term?
(a) Mohammed Shahabuddin
(b) Mirza Fakhrul Islam Alamgir
(c) Sheikh Hasina
(d) Khaleda Zia
(e) Muhammad Yunus
24) Recently, S. Somanath and Anand Mahindra were appointed/re-appointed as Part-time, Non-official Directors on the Central Board of which institution?
(a) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(b) State Bank of India (SBI)
(c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(d) NITI Aayog
(e) NABARD
25) Consider the following statements regarding the exoplanet GJ 523b:
- GJ 523b has a mass approximately 23 times that of Earth.
- It has a radius of about 2.55 times Earth’s radius.
- It was initially detected by NASA’s Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS).
- It orbits a mid-sized orange K-dwarf star located about 87 light-years from Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3
(d) All the above
(e) None of the above
26) Recently, which Indian defence startup unveiled ‘FWD Supreme Lite’, described as India’s first AI-piloted fighter jet programme?
(a) NewSpace Research and Technologies
(b) Flying Wedge Defence & Aerospace Technologies Pvt. Ltd.
(c) ideaForge Technology
(d) Garuda Aerospace
(e) Agnikul Cosmos
27) In news, Madras Day is observed annually on 22 August to commemorate the historical foundation of Madras, now Chennai. In which year was the annual observance of Madras Day initiated?
(a) 1999
(b) 2001
(c) 2004
(d) 2006
(e) 2010
28) Who among the following was awarded the Ila-Bansidhar Panda Kala Samman 2026 for lifetime excellence in the field of art?
(a) Ashutosh Parida
(b) Guru Durga Charan Ranbir
(c) Damodar Behera
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(e) None of the above
29) On which date did Ladakh become a separate Union Territory following the reorganisation of the erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) 15 August 2019
(b) 31 October 2019
(c) 26 January 2020
(d) 5 August 2019
(e) 1 November 2019
30) Where is the headquarters of IDFC First Bank located?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Mumbai
(d) Chennai
(e) Hyderabad
Answers:
1) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
IDFC First Bank Limited successfully completed its maiden USD 500 million bond issuance through its International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) Banking Unit (IBU) at GIFT City, Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
The bond issuance marked IDFC First Bank’s debut in the global debt capital markets.
The bonds have a 3-year tenure, with maturity due in 2029, and carry a fixed coupon rate of 5.625%.
The bonds were issued in Regulation S format, meaning they were placed with investors outside the United States (USA).
The bonds received an investment-grade ‘BBB-’ rating from S&P Global Ratings, with a Stable Outlook.
Detailed Explanation:
IDFC First Bank Limited successfully completed its maiden USD 500 million bond issuance through its International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) Banking Unit (IBU) at GIFT City, Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
The bond issuance marked IDFC First Bank’s debut in the global debt capital markets.
The bonds have a 3-year tenure, with maturity due in 2029, and carry a fixed coupon rate of 5.625%.
The bonds were issued in Regulation S format, meaning they were placed with investors outside the United States (USA).
The bonds received an investment-grade ‘BBB-’ rating from S&P Global Ratings, with a Stable Outlook.
The issuance attracted major global institutional investors, including BlackRock, Capital Group, and AllianceBernstein, demonstrating strong investor participation.
Interest on the bonds will be paid semi-annually, on February 25 and August 25 each year.
The first interest payment is scheduled for February 25, 2027.
The bond issuance was conducted through the bank’s IFSC Banking Unit (IBU) located at GIFT City, India’s major international financial hub.
2) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to close the concessional swap facility for Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) [FCNR(B)] deposits on 31 August 2026, one month earlier than the original deadline of 30 September 2026.
Bankers have described the RBI’s decision as a “prudent” move, as FCNR(B) deposits represent a liability for Indian banks and the banks largely expect to meet their internal mobilisation targets.
One Public Sector Bank (PSB) executive stated that the bank had already achieved its internal USD 2 billion target, while another banker expected to miss the target only marginally.
Detailed Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to close the concessional swap facility for Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) [FCNR(B)] deposits on 31 August 2026, one month earlier than the original deadline of 30 September 2026.
Bankers have described the RBI’s decision as a “prudent” move, as FCNR(B) deposits represent a liability for Indian banks and the banks largely expect to meet their internal mobilisation targets.
One Public Sector Bank (PSB) executive stated that the bank had already achieved its internal USD 2 billion target, while another banker expected to miss the target only marginally.
The FCNR(B) swap facility was initially announced by the RBI on 5 June 2026 and became operational from 8 June 2026.
The RBI decided to advance the closure date to 31 August 2026 from 30 September 2026 because of the “encouraging response” to the facility.
The facility helped Indian banks mobilise a massive USD 52.3 billion in FCNR(B) deposits as of 13 August 2026.
Bankers expect an additional USD 20 billion or so to be mobilised by the end of August 2026.
Since the RBI bears the entire currency-hedging cost of FCNR(B) deposits under the concessional swap facility, the potential cost to the central bank could be significant.
3) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
According to Reserve Bank of India (RBI) data, Bank deposit growth accelerated to 15.4% year-on-year (Y-o-Y) as of 31 July 2026, the highest level since December 2016..
Deposit growth increased sharply from 12.7% as of 15 July 2026 to 15.4% by 31 July 2026.
The last time bank deposit growth exceeded this level was on 9 December 2016, when it stood at 15.46%.
Aggregate bank deposits increased by ₹6.61 trillion during the fortnight ended 31 July 2026, taking the total outstanding deposit base to ₹269.41 trillion.
Detailed Explanation:
According to Reserve Bank of India (RBI) data, Bank deposit growth accelerated to 15.4% year-on-year (Y-o-Y) as of 31 July 2026, the highest level since December 2016..
Deposit growth increased sharply from 12.7% as of 15 July 2026 to 15.4% by 31 July 2026.
The last time bank deposit growth exceeded this level was on 9 December 2016, when it stood at 15.46%.
Aggregate bank deposits increased by ₹6.61 trillion during the fortnight ended 31 July 2026, taking the total outstanding deposit base to ₹269.41 trillion.
The fortnightly increase in deposits represented a 2.5% rise in the aggregate deposit base.
Time deposits contributed ₹4.21 trillion to the fortnightly increase, while demand deposits increased by ₹2.40 trillion.
The sharp rise in deposits was partly driven by banks mobilising foreign currency deposits under the RBI’s special FCNR(B) swap facility.
Banks had mobilised USD 36.7 billion through FCNR(B) deposits under the special facility by 31 July 2026.
The RBI introduced the FCNR(B) swap facility in June 2026 for fresh FCNR(B) deposits with maturities of three to five years.
4) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Wizzmoni Financial Services Ltd., formerly known as Unimoni, an Indian Non-Banking Finance Company (NBFC), entered into a strategic partnership with Oman Air.
The partnership aims to launch the co-branded “Wizz Voyager Multi-Currency Card”, an Artificial Intelligence (AI)-powered travel card supporting multiple global currencies.
The Wizz Voyager Multi-Currency Card is designed for international travellers, including students, professionals, and tourists.
The card supports more than 35 currencies, providing a seamless digital foreign exchange (forex) experience.
The card is supported by a feature-rich mobile application, offering real-time transaction tracking and smart financial controls.
Detailed Explanation:
Wizzmoni Financial Services Ltd., formerly known as Unimoni, an Indian Non-Banking Finance Company (NBFC), entered into a strategic partnership with Oman Air.
The partnership aims to launch the co-branded “Wizz Voyager Multi-Currency Card”, an Artificial Intelligence (AI)-powered travel card supporting multiple global currencies.
The Wizz Voyager Multi-Currency Card is designed for international travellers, including students, professionals, and tourists.
The card supports more than 35 currencies, providing a seamless digital foreign exchange (forex) experience.
The card is supported by a feature-rich mobile application, offering real-time transaction tracking and smart financial controls.
The partnership combines payments, rewards, and travel benefits on a single platform to provide a more seamless international travel experience.
Wizz Voyager is a prepaid multi-currency foreign exchange card issued by Wizzmoni Financial Services in association with Visa Inc.
5) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has proposed several changes to ease funding constraints and improve liquidity management for debt issuers.
The proposed reforms include scrapping an earlier mandate related to listing past debt securities and relaxing the framework governing International Securities Identification Numbers (ISINs).
International Securities Identification Number (ISIN) is a unique 12-character alphanumeric code used globally to identify financial instruments.
The first 2 characters of an ISIN form the Country Code and consist of letters.
The Country Code indicates the country where the company or issuer is registered.
The next 9 characters form the Security Identifier, which can contain letters and numbers.
The Security Identifier uniquely identifies the specific financial security.
The final 1 character of an ISIN is the Check Digit, which is a number.
Detailed Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has proposed several changes to ease funding constraints and improve liquidity management for debt issuers.
The proposed reforms include scrapping an earlier mandate related to listing past debt securities and relaxing the framework governing International Securities Identification Numbers (ISINs).
International Securities Identification Number (ISIN) is a unique 12-character alphanumeric code used globally to identify financial instruments.
ISINs are used to identify securities such as stocks, bonds, and derivatives accurately in the international financial system.
ISINs facilitate cross-border trading, clearing, and settlement by providing a standardized identification system for financial instruments.
The first 2 characters of an ISIN form the Country Code and consist of letters.
The Country Code indicates the country where the company or issuer is registered.
The next 9 characters form the Security Identifier, which can contain letters and numbers.
The Security Identifier uniquely identifies the specific financial security.
If locally assigned numbers are shorter than the required length, zeros are used to fill the remaining positions.
The final 1 character of an ISIN is the Check Digit, which is a number.
The Check Digit is used to detect errors and validate the authenticity/correctness of an ISIN.
Separately, SEBI has proposed increasing the maximum number of ISINs maturing in a financial year to 17, from the existing limit of 14.
Under the proposed 17-ISIN limit, issuers would be allowed up to 12 ISINs for plain vanilla debt securities and 5 ISINs for structured and market-linked instruments.
6) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
According to a report by the Bank of Baroda Economics Research Department, Investment announcements in India totalled ₹26.75 trillion between April 1 and August 5, 2026, during FY 2026-27.
The Information Technology-enabled Services (ITeS) sector accounted for around 56% of the total proposed investments, despite continued global uncertainties.
The ITeS sector attracted proposed investments of around ₹14.98 trillion, with almost 99% of these investments concentrated in data centres and Artificial Intelligence (AI).
Detailed Explanation:
According to a report by the Bank of Baroda Economics Research Department, Investment announcements in India totalled ₹26.75 trillion between April 1 and August 5, 2026, during FY 2026-27.
The Information Technology-enabled Services (ITeS) sector accounted for around 56% of the total proposed investments, despite continued global uncertainties.
The ITeS sector attracted proposed investments of around ₹14.98 trillion, with almost 99% of these investments concentrated in data centres and Artificial Intelligence (AI).
The ₹14.98 trillion ITeS investments involve 13 companies, showing that investment activity in the sector remains highly concentrated.
The report noted that investment announcements have not yet broadly spread to consumer-oriented industries, indicating a narrow concentration of new investments.
Proposed investments in consumer goods, including automobiles, remained below ₹2,000 crore.
The other electronics segment attracted investment announcements of around ₹51,000 crore, with nearly two-thirds of the proposed investments directed towards solar cells and batteries.
7) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) has proposed widening the participation of Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) in Exchange-Traded Commodity Derivatives (ETCDs).
The proposals aim to broaden the participant base, enhance liquidity and market depth, improve price discovery, strengthen convergence between derivatives and physical markets, and integrate India’s commodity derivatives market with the international commodity market.
Under the first proposal, FPIs would be allowed to participate in non-agricultural index derivative contracts, irrespective of whether the underlying contracts are cash-settled.
Detailed Explanation:
SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) has proposed widening the participation of Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) in Exchange-Traded Commodity Derivatives (ETCDs).
The proposals aim to broaden the participant base, enhance liquidity and market depth, improve price discovery, strengthen convergence between derivatives and physical markets, and integrate India’s commodity derivatives market with the international commodity market.
Under the first proposal, FPIs would be allowed to participate in non-agricultural index derivative contracts, irrespective of whether the underlying contracts are cash-settled.
Currently, FPIs can participate only in cash-settled non-agricultural derivative contracts where the underlying contracts are also cash-settled.
SEBI clarified that index derivatives are always cash-settled, regardless of whether their underlying assets are cash-settled, so allowing FPIs in such contracts would not create delivery-related issues.
The Commodity Derivatives Advisory Committee (CDAC) has agreed with the proposal to widen FPI participation in non-agricultural index derivatives.
Under the second proposal, FPIs would be permitted to participate in non-cash-settled or physically settled non-agricultural commodity derivatives traded on domestic exchanges.
The proposed commodity derivatives would include contracts linked to crude oil, natural gas, gold, silver, and base metals, which are closely connected with global benchmarks
8) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Apple Pay is expected to launch in India by late September or October 2026, although Apple has not officially confirmed the launch timeline or feature set.
At launch, Apple Pay is expected to support Visa and Mastercard credit cards, while UPI support will be excluded initially.
UPI integration requires approval from the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and a partnership with a sponsor bank to route transactions; Apple has reportedly not yet completed these requirements.
Initially, Apple Pay is expected to be limited to NFC-based card payments and online card transactions, restricting its reach compared with widely accepted UPI-based payment apps.
Detailed Explanation:
Apple Pay is expected to launch in India by late September or October 2026, although Apple has not officially confirmed the launch timeline or feature set.
At launch, Apple Pay is expected to support Visa and Mastercard credit cards, while UPI support will be excluded initially.
UPI integration requires approval from the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and a partnership with a sponsor bank to route transactions; Apple has reportedly not yet completed these requirements.
Initially, Apple Pay is expected to be limited to NFC-based card payments and online card transactions, restricting its reach compared with widely accepted UPI-based payment apps.
Apple is reportedly seeking an interchange fee of 15–20 basis points per transaction, while major Indian banks have offered around 10 basis points.
Interchange fee is the fee paid by the merchant’s bank to the card-issuing bank for a card transaction and is included in the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR).
If agreed, the proposed interchange fee would come from banks’ existing interchange revenue and would not be an additional charge to customers or merchants.
9) Answer: E
Short Explanation:
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has proposed changes to simplify the Know Your Client (KYC) process for eligible overseas investors in India’s securities market.
The proposal would allow eligible Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs), and foreign nationals to complete KYC without travelling to India.
The proposal covers individual Persons Resident Outside India (PROIs) who are located in FATF-compliant countries.
At present, physical presence in India is required for digital onboarding of such eligible overseas investors.
Detailed Explanation:
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has proposed changes to simplify the Know Your Client (KYC) process for eligible overseas investors in India’s securities market.
The proposal would allow eligible Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs), and foreign nationals to complete KYC without travelling to India.
The proposal covers individual Persons Resident Outside India (PROIs) who are located in FATF-compliant countries.
At present, physical presence in India is required for digital onboarding of such eligible overseas investors.
Under the proposed framework, eligible PROIs could complete digital KYC while staying overseas, removing the requirement to be physically present in India during onboarding.
The proposal does not apply to individuals seeking registration as Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs), who will continue to follow the separate FPI regulatory framework.
SEBI has proposed additional security and verification safeguards for investors completing KYC remotely.
The proposed digital KYC process would include a liveness check to help verify that the person undergoing KYC is genuine and physically present during the verification.
KYC verification would be carried out in the presence of an authorised representative as part of the proposed remote onboarding safeguards.
10) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
State Bank of India (SBI), India’s largest lender, is planning to raise funds through five-year US dollar-denominated bonds.
The final amount SBI will raise will depend on its ability to compress the initial price guidance of 120 basis points over the benchmark US Treasury yield.
The proposed bonds will be issued in one or more tranches of $250 million.
The bond issue will be drawn from SBI’s $10-billion Medium-Term Note (MTN) Programme.
The notes will mature on August 18, 2031 and will be issued as Regulation S (Reg S), senior unsecured securities.
Detailed Explanation:
State Bank of India (SBI), India’s largest lender, is planning to raise funds through five-year US dollar-denominated bonds.
The final amount SBI will raise will depend on its ability to compress the initial price guidance of 120 basis points over the benchmark US Treasury yield.
The proposed bonds will be issued in one or more tranches of $250 million.
The bond issue will be drawn from SBI’s $10-billion Medium-Term Note (MTN) Programme.
The notes will mature on August 18, 2031 and will be issued as Regulation S (Reg S), senior unsecured securities.
The proceeds will be used for general corporate purposes and to meet the funding requirements of SBI’s overseas offices and branches.
The bonds will carry an investor put option at 101% if the aggregate direct and indirect shareholding of the Government of India falls below 51%.
The proposed notes are planned to be listed on the Singapore Exchange (SGX), NSE International Exchange (NSE IX) and India International Exchange (India INX).
BNP Paribas, Citigroup, Crédit Agricole CIB, Emirates NBD Bank, HSBC, MUFG and Standard Chartered Bank have been appointed as joint bookrunners and joint lead managers.
11) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
Indian semiconductor start-ups have raised approximately $206 million across 51 funding rounds since 2022, according to the Indian Semiconductor Startup Landscape 2026 report released by Speciale Invest in partnership with the Startup Policy Forum (SPF).
In H1 2026, semiconductor start-ups raised $61.9 million, which was 81% of the $76.6 million raised during the entire 2025.
The number of funding rounds declined from 16 in 2024 to 13 in 2025 and 7 in H1 2026, indicating a shift towards fewer but larger investments in start-ups that are closer to product development and commercialisation.
24 chip-design projects have been supported under the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme, of which 14 subsequently raised institutional venture capital, collectively securing $100.8 million across their first and second funding rounds.
Detailed Explanation:
Indian semiconductor start-ups have raised approximately $206 million across 51 funding rounds since 2022, according to the Indian Semiconductor Startup Landscape 2026 report released by Speciale Invest in partnership with the Startup Policy Forum (SPF).
In H1 2026, semiconductor start-ups raised $61.9 million, which was 81% of the $76.6 million raised during the entire 2025.
The number of funding rounds declined from 16 in 2024 to 13 in 2025 and 7 in H1 2026, indicating a shift towards fewer but larger investments in start-ups that are closer to product development and commercialisation.
24 chip-design projects have been supported under the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme, of which 14 subsequently raised institutional venture capital, collectively securing $100.8 million across their first and second funding rounds.
C2i Semiconductors, NetraSemi, Morphing Machines and Mindgrove Technologies account for around 56% of the private capital raised by DLI-backed companies.
The Indian semiconductor start-up ecosystem is expanding beyond digital, Radio Frequency (RF), RISC-V and edge System-on-Chip (SoC) technologies into photonics, power and compound semiconductors, fab tooling, metrology, Artificial Intelligence (AI) data-centre silicon, semiconductor design workflows and analogue AI inference
12) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
Indian Railway Finance Corporation (IRFC) is the dedicated market borrowing arm of Indian Railways (IR) and primarily finances rolling stock assets and railway infrastructure projects, which are subsequently leased to Indian Railways.
In recent years, the Government of India has provided greater Gross Budgetary Support (GBS) to Indian Railways for infrastructure and rolling stock projects, reducing dependence on Extra Budgetary Resources (EBR).
The total principal repayment and interest payment made by Indian Railways towards lease charges to IRFC and the Ministry of Finance (MoF) increased steadily from ₹28,702 crore in FY 2021-22 to ₹46,538 crore in FY 2025-26.
Detailed Explanation:
Indian Railway Finance Corporation (IRFC) is the dedicated market borrowing arm of Indian Railways (IR) and primarily finances rolling stock assets and railway infrastructure projects, which are subsequently leased to Indian Railways.
IRFC also has a mandate to provide financing to entities having forward and backward linkages with the Railways, including power generation and transmission, mining, fuel, coal, warehousing, telecommunications, hotels and catering.
In recent years, the Government of India has provided greater Gross Budgetary Support (GBS) to Indian Railways for infrastructure and rolling stock projects, reducing dependence on Extra Budgetary Resources (EBR).
The total principal repayment and interest payment made by Indian Railways towards lease charges to IRFC and the Ministry of Finance (MoF) increased steadily from ₹28,702 crore in FY 2021-22 to ₹46,538 crore in FY 2025-26.
13) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India has modified its May 2025 judgment on eligibility for entry-level judicial service examinations, reducing the mandatory legal practice requirement for law graduates from 3 years to 1 year.
The decision was delivered by a 3-member Bench comprising Chief Justice Surya Kant, Justice A.G. Masih and Justice K. Vinod Chandran in a 2:1 split verdict while dismissing the review petition.
Candidates appearing for judicial service examinations notified between 25 May 2025 and 31 March 2027 will remain eligible irrespective of prior legal practice experience.
Detailed Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India has modified its May 2025 judgment on eligibility for entry-level judicial service examinations, reducing the mandatory legal practice requirement for law graduates from 3 years to 1 year.
The decision was delivered by a 3-member Bench comprising Chief Justice Surya Kant, Justice A.G. Masih and Justice K. Vinod Chandran in a 2:1 split verdict while dismissing the review petition.
Candidates appearing for judicial service examinations notified between 25 May 2025 and 31 March 2027 will remain eligible irrespective of prior legal practice experience.
Candidates selected through these examinations will initially be appointed as trainee judicial officers.
They will undergo 1 year of training at a judicial academy, followed by 1 year of structured clerkship.
The earlier May 2025 verdict had barred fresh law graduates from directly appearing in entry-level judicial service examinations by introducing a minimum 3-year legal practice requirement.
14) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
Union Home Minister Amit Shah announced the launch of four toll-free helplines in West Bengal to enable citizens to directly report complaints related to extortion, syndicate activities, illegal road and toll tax collections, and illegal liquor.
Helpline Numbers:
155334 – Extortion
155335 – Syndicate activities
155337 – Illegal road and toll tax collections
155339 – Illegal liquor
Detailed Explanation:
Union Home Minister Amit Shah announced the launch of four toll-free helplines in West Bengal to enable citizens to directly report complaints related to extortion, syndicate activities, illegal road and toll tax collections, and illegal liquor.
The helplines were reviewed during a meeting chaired by Amit Shah with West Bengal Chief Minister Suvendu Adhikari and senior officials in Siliguri.
The government has assured swift action on complaints received through the helplines.
Helpline Numbers:
155334 – Extortion
155335 – Syndicate activities
155337 – Illegal road and toll tax collections
155339 – Illegal liquor
The initiative aims to provide citizens with a direct mechanism to report illegal activities and strengthen action against organised extortion and illegal collections in the state.
15) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has notified the Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme (MPMS) with a budgetary outlay of ₹62,500 crore to strengthen India’s mobile phone manufacturing ecosystem.
The scheme will operate for 5 years from Financial Year (FY) 2026-27 to FY 2030-31 and aims to enhance global competitiveness, Domestic Value Addition (DVA), domestic manufacturing capabilities and employment generation.
MPMS has two Target Segments:
Target Segment 1 (TS1): Incentivising mobile phone manufacturing.
Target Segment 2 (TS2): Supporting Indian mobile phone brands.
Detailed Explanation:
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has notified the Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme (MPMS) with a budgetary outlay of ₹62,500 crore to strengthen India’s mobile phone manufacturing ecosystem.
The scheme will operate for 5 years from Financial Year (FY) 2026-27 to FY 2030-31 and aims to enhance global competitiveness, Domestic Value Addition (DVA), domestic manufacturing capabilities and employment generation.
MPMS has two Target Segments:
Target Segment 1 (TS1): Incentivising mobile phone manufacturing.
Target Segment 2 (TS2): Supporting Indian mobile phone brands.
Under TS1, manufacturers will receive incentives ranging from 2.25% to 5%.
Under TS2, eligible Indian brands will receive 5% incentive, along with an additional 3% incentive for Indian design and Research and Development (R&D).
An additional incentive of up to 1.5% will be provided for domestic sourcing of key components and sub-assemblies, subject to prescribed localisation conditions.
An Indian Brand under TS2 must have its Intellectual Property (IP) and trademark held in India, management control with Indian citizens, more than 51% Indian shareholding, and in-house design and R&D capabilities in India.
For TS1, eligible manufacturers, including Electronics Manufacturing Services (EMS) companies, must have a minimum turnover of ₹10,000 crore in FY 2025-26.
For TS2, eligible manufacturers and EMS companies must have a minimum turnover of ₹1,000 crore in FY 2025-26.
16) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
The National Bureau of Soil Survey and Land Use Planning (NBSS&LUP), headquartered in Nagpur, Maharashtra, and functioning under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), has developed India’s first soil texture map.
The map, released on 16 July 2026, provides detailed information on soil characteristics for every hectare of the country.
The map was prepared using field studies, remote sensing, satellite imagery and Artificial Intelligence (AI).
Detailed Explanation:
The National Bureau of Soil Survey and Land Use Planning (NBSS&LUP), headquartered in Nagpur, Maharashtra, and functioning under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), has developed India’s first soil texture map.
The map, released on 16 July 2026, provides detailed information on soil characteristics for every hectare of the country.
The map was prepared using field studies, remote sensing, satellite imagery and Artificial Intelligence (AI).
The soil texture data can help farmers scientifically select suitable crops for specific plots based on soil characteristics, improving crop planning and agricultural productivity.
The mapping is particularly significant for India because of the small size of individual farms and substantial variation in soil characteristics over short distances.
The data can also assist government agencies in region-specific agricultural policies, crop planning, land-use planning and efficient allocation of agricultural resources.
The development of the soil texture map comes one year after NBSS&LUP developed India’s first soil depth map.
The bureau’s next major project is to develop maps showing the water retention and absorption capacity of soils, which will be particularly useful for regions such as Maharashtra and southern India.
17) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved the establishment of a Bench of the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh in the Union Territory of Ladakh.
The decision was announced by Union Home Minister Amit Shah and aims to improve access to justice for people living in the remote and far-flung areas of Ladakh.
The new High Court Bench will reduce the time, distance and inconvenience faced by litigants, lawyers and other stakeholders in accessing higher judicial services.
Detailed Explanation:
The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved the establishment of a Bench of the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh in the Union Territory of Ladakh.
The decision was announced by Union Home Minister Amit Shah and aims to improve access to justice for people living in the remote and far-flung areas of Ladakh.
The new High Court Bench will reduce the time, distance and inconvenience faced by litigants, lawyers and other stakeholders in accessing higher judicial services.
Currently, the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh has its principal seats at Srinagar and Jammu. The new Bench will provide a closer judicial forum for the people of Ladakh.
The decision is expected to strengthen the judicial infrastructure and institutional framework of Ladakh, which faces geographical and connectivity challenges.
Ladakh became a separate Union Territory on 31 October 2019 following the reorganisation of the erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir.
The move reflects the Government’s commitment to the all-round development of Ladakh, easier access to justice and constitutional safeguards for the Union Territory.
18) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
The Government of India has permitted duty-free import of 10 lakh metric tonnes (MT) of raw sugar under the Tariff Rate Quota (TRQ) system until 31 October 2026 to improve domestic availability and control rising sugar prices.
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) issued the notification on amid concerns over domestic sugar supplies ahead of the festival season.
The decision comes as sugar prices have increased sharply, with the all-India average ex-mill price reaching around ₹5,400–5,500 per quintal, while the retail price rose to around ₹52.30 per kilogram on 18 August 2026, compared with ₹46.34 per kilogram a year earlier.
The Government has also introduced stockholding limits for bulk sugar consumers using 10 tonnes or more of sugar per month, restricting them to stocks equivalent to a maximum of 15 days of consumption.
Detailed Explanation:
The Government of India has permitted duty-free import of 10 lakh metric tonnes (MT) of raw sugar under the Tariff Rate Quota (TRQ) system until 31 October 2026 to improve domestic availability and control rising sugar prices.
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) issued the notification on amid concerns over domestic sugar supplies ahead of the festival season.
The decision comes as sugar prices have increased sharply, with the all-India average ex-mill price reaching around ₹5,400–5,500 per quintal, while the retail price rose to around ₹52.30 per kilogram on 18 August 2026, compared with ₹46.34 per kilogram a year earlier.
The Government has also introduced stockholding limits for bulk sugar consumers using 10 tonnes or more of sugar per month, restricting them to stocks equivalent to a maximum of 15 days of consumption.
The Sugar (Stockholding Limit of Bulk Consumers) Order, 2026 will remain effective from 1 September to 30 November 2026 and covers confectioners, soft drink manufacturers, food processing units, sweetmeat sellers and other institutional buyers.
The Tariff Rate Quota application window is from 21 August to 28 August 2026.
Applications are invited from sugar millers and refiners with their own functional capacity to convert raw sugar into white or refined sugar.
Preference will be given to importers undertaking to complete the import by 15 October 2026, while failure to utilise or surrender the allocated quantity within the prescribed period will be treated as non-compliance.
19) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
National Teachers’ Awards 2026 will be conferred by President Droupadi Murmu on 5 September 2026 (Teachers’ Day) at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
48 school teachers have been selected for the 2026 awards — 26 male and 22 female teachers.
The awardees represent 27 States, 7 Union Territories and 6 Central Government organisations.
The National Teachers’ Award was instituted in 1958 and is presented annually on 5 September (Teachers’ Day).
Detailed Explanation:
National Teachers’ Awards 2026 will be conferred by President Droupadi Murmu on 5 September 2026 (Teachers’ Day) at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
The awards are administered by the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education, to recognise outstanding school teachers for excellence, innovation, dedication and contribution to improving students’ learning outcomes.
48 school teachers have been selected for the 2026 awards — 26 male and 22 female teachers.
The awardees represent 27 States, 7 Union Territories and 6 Central Government organisations.
The National Teachers’ Award was instituted in 1958 and is presented annually on 5 September (Teachers’ Day).
Selection is conducted through District/Regional → State/Organisation → National-level evaluation, with the final selection made by an Independent National Jury.
20) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
Odia poet, essayist and former CSIR-IMMT scientist Dr. Ashutosh Parida has been selected for the 47th Sarala Puraskar 2026 for his poetry collection ‘Bishwas De Pruthwi’, published by Prabha Publication in 2024.
The Sarala Puraskar is an annual literary award presented by the Indian Metals Public Charitable Trust (IMPaCT), the charitable arm of Indian Metals and Ferro Alloys Limited (IMFA), for outstanding contributions to Odia literature.
Award: The winner will receive a citation, copper plaque and ₹7 lakh cash prize.
Award Ceremony: The award will be presented on 25 October 2026 in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
Detailed Explanation:
Odia poet, essayist and former CSIR-IMMT scientist Dr. Ashutosh Parida has been selected for the 47th Sarala Puraskar 2026 for his poetry collection ‘Bishwas De Pruthwi’, published by Prabha Publication in 2024.
The Sarala Puraskar is an annual literary award presented by the Indian Metals Public Charitable Trust (IMPaCT), the charitable arm of Indian Metals and Ferro Alloys Limited (IMFA), for outstanding contributions to Odia literature.
Award: The winner will receive a citation, copper plaque and ₹7 lakh cash prize.
Award Ceremony: The award will be presented on 25 October 2026 in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
‘Bishwas De Pruthwi’ was selected from a final shortlist of 7 books representing different literary forms, including poetry, stories, novels, short stories and drama.
Ila-Bansidhar Panda Kala Samman 2026, given for lifetime excellence in the field of art, has also been announced.
Guru Durga Charan Ranbir – Odissi maestro and Padma Shri awardee.
Damodar Behera – Sculptor and art educator.
Award: Each recipient will receive a citation, copper plaque and ₹2.5 lakh cash prize.
21) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
‘Mangrol’, the third Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC) built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL), Kochi, was delivered to the Indian Navy on 21 August 2026.
Mangrol is the third of eight ASW-SWCs being built for the Indian Navy and will undergo pre-commissioning procedures before joining the fleet.
The vessel has more than 80% indigenous content, supporting the Government’s ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ vision for indigenous defence manufacturing.
Detailed Explanation:
‘Mangrol’, the third Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC) built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL), Kochi, was delivered to the Indian Navy on 21 August 2026.
Mangrol is the third of eight ASW-SWCs being built for the Indian Navy and will undergo pre-commissioning procedures before joining the fleet.
The vessel has more than 80% indigenous content, supporting the Government’s ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ vision for indigenous defence manufacturing.
Mangrol is equipped for underwater surveillance, Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW), Low-Intensity Maritime Operations (LIMO), mine warfare, and search-and-rescue missions in coastal waters.
The 78-metre-long craft has a displacement of approximately 900–1,100 tonnes, a maximum speed of 25 knots, and an endurance of about two weeks.
The vessel is powered by a diesel engine and waterjets and has a shallow draught of approximately 2.7 metres, enabling operations in confined and shallow coastal waters with reduced underwater noise.
For submarine detection, the craft carries the DRDO-developed Abhay hull-mounted sonar and a towed low-frequency variable-depth sonar.
Its major weapons include the RBU-6000 anti-submarine rocket launcher, triple torpedo tubes firing the Advanced Lightweight Torpedo (ALWT), a 30 mm naval gun, and mine-laying rails.
23) Answer: B
Mirza Fakhrul Islam Alamgir, a senior leader of the Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP), was elected as the 23rd President of the People’s Republic of Bangladesh for a 5-year term.
He was elected through a parliamentary election held at the Jatiya Sangsad (Bangladesh Parliament) in Dhaka.
The presidential election was held after Mohammed Shahabuddin resigned as President on 24 July 2026 under Article 54 of the Bangladesh Constitution.
Mohammed Shahabuddin had served as the President of Bangladesh since 24 April 2023.
24) Answer: C
The Government of India (GoI) appointed former Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Chairman S. Somanath Sreedhara Panicker and re-appointed Anand Gopal Mahindra, Chairman of the Mahindra Group, as Part-time, Non-official Directors on the Central Board of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Both S. Somanath and Anand Mahindra were appointed for a 4-year term with effect from 20 August 2026, or until further orders, whichever is earlier.
The Central Board consists of official directors, including the RBI Governor and not more than four Deputy Governors, and non-official directors nominated by the Government from various fields, along with two government officials or representatives from local boards, as provided under the RBI framework.
25) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
Astronomers discovered a 170-million-year-old giant exoplanet named GJ 523b, which has been informally nicknamed “Mega-Earth” because of its extremely large size and mass compared with Earth.
GJ 523b has a mass of approximately 23 times the mass of Earth and a radius of about 2.55 times Earth’s radius.
The newly discovered exoplanet has a density of around 126.82 grams per cubic inch.
GJ 523b orbits a mid-sized orange K-dwarf star located approximately 87 light-years from Earth.
Detailed Explanation:
Astronomers discovered a 170-million-year-old giant exoplanet named GJ 523b, which has been informally nicknamed “Mega-Earth” because of its extremely large size and mass compared with Earth.
GJ 523b has a mass of approximately 23 times the mass of Earth and a radius of about 2.55 times Earth’s radius.
The newly discovered exoplanet has a density of around 126.82 grams per cubic inch.
GJ 523b was initially detected by NASA’s Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS).
Its existence was subsequently confirmed by Max Krof of the Wisconsin Center for Origins Research (WiCOR) using ground-based astronomical instruments.
The confirmation observations included the WIYN 3.5-metre Telescope located at Kitt Peak National Observatory in Arizona, USA.
GJ 523b orbits a mid-sized orange K-dwarf star located approximately 87 light-years from Earth.
26) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Flying Wedge Defence & Aerospace Technologies Private Limited (FWDA), an Indian defence startup, unveiled ‘FWD Supreme Lite’, described as India’s first Artificial Intelligence (AI)-piloted fighter jet programme.
The unveiling marks a major transition of the programme from digital engineering and concept development to physical aircraft development.
FWD Supreme Lite has been designed and developed entirely in India, highlighting indigenous capabilities in defence aerospace technology.
The platform is planned to offer up to 30 hours of endurance and a 3,000 km range.
Detailed Explanation:
Flying Wedge Defence & Aerospace Technologies Private Limited (FWDA), an Indian defence startup, unveiled ‘FWD Supreme Lite’, described as India’s first Artificial Intelligence (AI)-piloted fighter jet programme.
The unveiling marks a major transition of the programme from digital engineering and concept development to physical aircraft development.
FWD Supreme Lite has been designed and developed entirely in India, highlighting indigenous capabilities in defence aerospace technology.
The platform is planned to offer up to 30 hours of endurance and a 3,000 km range.
Its AI-driven autonomy is designed to support precision strikes, swarm operations, and real-time Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) missions.
The newly unveiled fighter jet demonstrator weighs around 250 kg and is currently progressing through airframe development, system integration, and ground testing
27) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
Madras Day is observed annually on 22 August to commemorate the historical foundation of Madras, now Chennai, and celebrate the city’s rich heritage and cultural identity.
Madras Day 2026 marks the 23rd anniversary of the observance and the 387th anniversary of the founding of Madras in 1639.
The annual observance of Madras Day was initiated in 2004, with the first celebrations comprising around five events.
Madras city was officially renamed Chennai on 17 July 1996.
Detailed Explanation:
Madras Day is observed annually on 22 August to commemorate the historical foundation of Madras, now Chennai, and celebrate the city’s rich heritage and cultural identity.
Madras Day 2026 marks the 23rd anniversary of the observance and the 387th anniversary of the founding of Madras in 1639.
The occasion is associated with the 1639 land grant through which the English East India Company acquired land at Madraspatnam from local ruler Damarla Venkatadri Nayaka.
Francis Day obtained the grant for the East India Company, covering a coastal stretch at Madraspatnam.
The English later established Fort St. George, which became the foundation for the development of Madras as an important trading and administrative centre.
Francis Day and Andrew Cogan reached Madraspatnam on 20 February 1640.
The annual observance of Madras Day was initiated in 2004, with the first celebrations comprising around five events.
Madras city was officially renamed Chennai on 17 July 1996.
28) Answer: D
Ila-Bansidhar Panda Kala Samman 2026, given for lifetime excellence in the field of art, has also been announced.
Guru Durga Charan Ranbir – Odissi maestro and Padma Shri awardee.
Damodar Behera – Sculptor and art educator.
Award: Each recipient will receive a citation, copper plaque and ₹2.5 lakh cash prize.
29) Answer: B
Ladakh became a separate Union Territory on 31 October 2019 following the reorganisation of the erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir.
The move reflects the Government’s commitment to the all-round development of Ladakh, easier access to justice and constitutional safeguards for the Union Territory.
30) Answer: C
Formed : 2018 through the merger of IDFC Bank Limited and Capital First Limited.
Headquarters : Mumbai, Maharashtra.
IDFC First Bank is a private-sector bank providing services such as retail banking, corporate banking, and wealth management.
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