Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2026 of  03rd  April  2026. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2026 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.

 

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1) Under the one-time relief measure for SEZ manufacturing units introduced by Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) for FY 2026–27, what is the maximum allowable sale of goods to the Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) for eligible units?

(a) 10% of the highest annual FOB export value of the last three financial years

(b) 20% of the highest annual FOB export value of the last three financial years

(c) 30% of the highest annual FOB export value of the last three financial years

(d) 50% of the highest annual FOB export value of the last three financial years

(e) No cap on DTA sales

2) Under the revised RBI Capital Market Exposure (CME) framework, which of the following entities is specifically covered under a new principle-based lending framework?

(a) Capital Market Intermediaries (CMIs)

(b) Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)

(c) Mutual Funds

(d) Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs)

(e) Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)

3) From 1 April 2026, IRDAI has mandated that all insurers in India must prepare financial statements in accordance with___________

(a) Companies Act 2013 Accounting Standards (AS)

(b) International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS)

(c) Insurance Act 1938 Financial Reporting Norms

(d) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Accounting Guidelines

(e) Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS)

4) Under the free electricity scheme launched by the Government of Andhra Pradesh from 1 April 2026, how many units of electricity per month are provided free to powerloom operators?

(a) 100 units per month

(b) 200 units per month

(c) 300 units per month

(d) 500 units per month

(e) 1000 units per month

5) As of 2026, the National Piped Natural Gas Drive 2.0 has been extended till 30 June 2026. What is the target share of natural gas in India’s energy basket under this initiative?

(a) 10%

(b) 12%

(c) 15%

(d) 18%

(e) 20%

6) The Lok Sabha recently amended the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 2014 to declare Amaravati as the sole capital of Andhra Pradesh. From which date has this amendment been given retrospective effect?

(a) 1 January 2024

(b) 2 June 2024

(c) 1 April 2025

(d) 15 August 2024

(e) 26 January 2025

7) Under the Lakhpati Bitiya Yojana launched by the Delhi Government, what is the total financial assistance deposited for a girl child that can grow with interest to approximately Rupees 1.20 lakh at maturity?

(a) ₹50,000

(b) ₹61,000

(c) ₹75,000

(d) ₹1,00,000

(e) ₹1,50,000

8) Which Panchayat secured 1st rank under the Healthy Panchayat category of the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar 2025?

(a) Kanchanbari Gram Panchayat

(b) Sepahijala District Panchayat

(c) Baikunthapur Gram Panchayat

(d) Unakoti District Panchayat

(e) West Tripura District Panchayat

9) In 2026, Air India signed a codeshare agreement with Uzbekistan Airways to enhance connectivity between India and Central Asia. Which of the following Indian cities is included in the codeshare routes to Tashkent?

(a) Delhi, Mumbai, and Bengaluru

(b) Delhi, Mumbai, and Goa

(c) Delhi, Chennai, and Kolkata

(d) Mumbai, Hyderabad, and Jaipur

(e) Delhi, Pune, and Kochi

10) On 1 April 2026, the Government of Meghalaya signed an MoU with Starlink India to improve internet connectivity. Which technology will Starlink India use to provide high-speed internet in remote areas?

(a) Fiber optic broadband

(b) Geostationary satellites

(c) 5G mobile networks

(d) Microwave radio links

(e) Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellites

11) Which airport was named the World’s Best Airport 2026 at the Skytrax World Airport Awards?

(a) Seoul Incheon International Airport

(b) Tokyo Haneda Airport

(c) Singapore Changi Airport

(d) Hong Kong International Airport

(e) Narita International Airport

12)  In FY 2025–26, the Ministry of Defence (MoD) achieved 100% utilisation of its capital outlay for Defence Services. What was the revised capital outlay for that year?

(a) ₹1.70 lakh crore

(b) ₹1.86 lakh crore

(c) ₹1.80 lakh crore

(d) ₹1.90 lakh crore

(e) ₹2.00 lakh crore

 

13) In 2026, the Ministry of Defence signed a ₹1,950 crore contract with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) for procuring Mountain Radar systems. Under which category was this acquisition made?

(a) Buy (Imported)

(b) Transfer of Technology (ToT)

(c) Strategic Partnership (SP)

(d) Buy (Indian – IDDM)

(e) Buy & Lease Back

14) In 2026, the Indian Navy received the delivery of ‘Malwan’, the second of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC). Which shipyard constructed it?

(a) Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL)

(b) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL)

(c) Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE)

(d) Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL)

(e) Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL)

 

15) Which vessel launched by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) is part of the Indian Navy’s Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel (NGOPV) programme?

(a) ICGS Achal

(b) INS Vikrant

(c) INS Malwan

(d) INS Shachi

(e) ICGS Vishwast

16) Who has assumed charge as the Vice Chief of the Army Staff (VCOAS) of the Indian Army?

(a) Lt Gen Manoj Pande

(b) Lt Gen Bipin Rawat

(c) Lt Gen Anil Chauhan

(d) Lt Gen Raj Shukla

(e) Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth

 

17) Who has been appointed as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd (POWERGRID) effective 1 April 2026?

(a) Pankaj Kumar

(b) Burra Vamsi Rama Mohan

(c) Rajiv Kumar

(d) Sushil Kumar

(e) Anil Sharma

18) Who has been appointed as the Director General (DG) of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) under the Ministry of Civil Aviation?

(a) Faiz Ahmed Kidwai

(b) Pankaj Singh

(c) Arun Kumar

(d) Rajesh Sharma

(e) Vir Vikram Yadav

19) As of 2026, Costa Rica launched a free mobile application to help users identify venomous snakes and reduce misidentification risks. What is the name of this app?

(a) SnakeSafe App

(b) VenomCheck App

(c) ICP App

(d) Serpent ID App

(e) CostaSnake App

20) Which ministry launched the Consultative Committee Management System (CCMS) Portal to facilitate the management and monitoring of Consultative Committee meetings?

(a) Ministry of Home Affairs

(b) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

(c) Ministry of Law and Justice

(d) Ministry of Finance

(e) Ministry of Personnel

 

21) Which of the following statements about the SHe-Box Portal is incorrect?

(a) The portal was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development in 2024.

(b) The portal is designed to implement the PoSH Act, 2013.

(c) Over 1,61,000 workplaces have been onboarded on the portal as of March 2026.

(d) The portal is only applicable to workplaces in the public sector.

(e) Details of over 68,460 Internal Committees have been updated on the portal.

22) Which of the following statements about the Poshan Tracker and Face Recognition System (FRS) is incorrect?

(a) The Poshan Tracker monitors Anganwadi Centres, Workers, and beneficiaries in near real-time.

(b) The Face Recognition System was first piloted in six States/UTs including Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat.

(c) Children up to 6 years under Mission Saksham Anganwadi are required to undergo FRS verification themselves.

(d) FRS was expanded pan-India in December 2024 with an option for THR distribution without FRS.

(e) The system ensures that supplementary nutrition (THR) reaches genuine beneficiaries.

23) Which of the following statements about the Asian Squash Federation (ASF) Awards 2025 is incorrect?

(a) Anahat Singh was named ASF Player of the Year in the girls’ Under 19 category.

(b) Abhay Singh received the men’s category Dato Alex Lee Award.

(c) Satomi Watanabe of Japan won the Senior Women’s Player of the Year award.

(d) The India men's national junior squash team won the gold medal at the World Junior Team Championships 2025.

(e) The official award ceremony will be held during the Asian Junior Individual Championships in Panzhihua in May 2026.

24) Which of the following statements about Indian airports in 2026 is incorrect?

(a) Indira Gandhi International Airport ranked 28th globally and won Best Airport in India and South Asia.

(b) Kempegowda International Airport ranked 41st globally and won Best Regional Airport in India and South Asia.

(c) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport received the Best Airport Staff award in India and South Asia.

(d) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport ranked 60th globally in 2026.

(e) Manohar International Airport improved to 64th position globally.

25) Which team received the Women’s Team of the Year award in the 2025 Asian Squash season?

(a) Hong Kong China

(b) Japan

(c) India

(d) Malaysia

(e) South Korea

 

Answers:

1) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

In line with the Union Budget 2026–27, the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) introduced a one-time relief measure for Special Economic Zones (SEZs) manufacturing units.

The scheme addresses issues faced by SEZ units due to global trade disruptions and facilitates sale of goods to Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) at concessional customs duty rates.

The scheme ensures that export focus of SEZ units is maintained, and DTA sales are capped at 30% of the highest annual FOB export value of the last three financial years.

Detailed Explanation:

In line with the Union Budget 2026–27, the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) introduced a one-time relief measure for Special Economic Zones (SEZs) manufacturing units.

The scheme addresses issues faced by SEZ units due to global trade disruptions and facilitates sale of goods to Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) at concessional customs duty rates.

The measure is implemented through an exemption notification under Section 25 of the Customs Act, 1962.

It is applicable for SEZ-to-DTA clearance of manufactured goods from 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2027 (Notification No. 11/2026-Customs dated 31.03.2026).

The objective is to ensure a level playing field between SEZ units and DTA units.

Under the scheme, concessional customs duty rates are prescribed as follows:

From 7.5% to 6.5%

From 10% to 9%

From 12.5%/15% to 10%

From 20% to 12.5%

From 20–30% to 15%

From 30–40% to 20%

Only eligible SEZ manufacturing units that commenced production on or before 31 March 2025 can avail the benefit.

The goods must have a minimum 20% value addition over inputs to qualify.

The scheme ensures that export focus of SEZ units is maintained, and DTA sales are capped at 30% of the highest annual FOB export value of the last three financial years.

 

2) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has extended the implementation of its revised Capital Market Exposure (CME) framework by 3 months, now effective from 1 July 2026 instead of 1 April 2026.

The revised framework was originally issued in February 2026 through RBI Amendment Directions on CME.

The framework aims to create an enabling system for banks to finance acquisitions by Indian corporates.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has extended the implementation of its revised Capital Market Exposure (CME) framework by 3 months, now effective from 1 July 2026 instead of 1 April 2026.

The revised framework was originally issued in February 2026 through RBI Amendment Directions on CME.

The framework aims to create an enabling system for banks to finance acquisitions by Indian corporates.

It also seeks to rationalize lending limits against shares, REITs, InvITs, and other securities.

A principle-based framework for lending to Capital Market Intermediaries (CMIs) has also been introduced.

RBI has revised the definition of “acquisition finance”, which now includes mergers and amalgamations.

Acquisition finance can now be extended only for acquiring control over non-financial target companies.

Under new rules, limits have been introduced on loans against securities across the banking system.

3) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has mandated adoption of Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS) for insurers from 1 April 2026.

The decision was taken during the 135th meeting of IRDAI, approving the IRDAI (Actuarial, Finance and Investment Functions of Insurers) (Amendment) Regulations, 2026.

Detailed Explanation:

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has mandated adoption of Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS) for insurers from 1 April 2026.

The decision was taken during the 135th meeting of IRDAI, approving the IRDAI (Actuarial, Finance and Investment Functions of Insurers) (Amendment) Regulations, 2026.

All insurers are required to prepare and present financial statements in accordance with Ind AS, marking a shift to a new financial reporting framework.

The implementation is applicable to all categories of insurers, including life insurers, general insurers, standalone health insurers, and reinsurers.

IRDAI has introduced a parallel reporting system for a transition period of 2 years (or as specified).

4) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Government of Andhra Pradesh led by Chief Minister Nara Chandrababu Naidu launched a free electricity scheme for handloom and powerloom weavers across the state from 1 April 2026 with an annual outlay of Rs 150 crore to reduce power costs, a major component in weaving operations.

Under the scheme, handloom weavers will receive free electricity up to 200 units per month and powerloom operators will receive free electricity up to 500 units per month.

The scheme is expected to enable annual savings of approximately Rs 8,640 for handloom weavers and Rs 21,600 for powerloom operators.

Detailed Explanation:

The Government of Andhra Pradesh led by Chief Minister Nara Chandrababu Naidu launched a free electricity scheme for handloom and powerloom weavers across the state from 1 April 2026 with an annual outlay of Rs 150 crore to reduce power costs, a major component in weaving operations.

Under the scheme, handloom weavers will receive free electricity up to 200 units per month and powerloom operators will receive free electricity up to 500 units per month.

The scheme is expected to enable annual savings of approximately Rs 8,640 for handloom weavers and Rs 21,600 for powerloom operators.

Additional support measures under the initiative include Rs 4,000 monthly pension, Rs 5 crore thrift fund for cooperatives, up to 90% subsidy on modern machinery, and 15% yarn rebate.

The initiative also supports cluster development in Dharmavaram, Pithapuram, and Mangalagiri, along with marketing assistance through Amazon, Flipkart, exhibitions, and digital platforms of Andhra Pradesh State Handloom Weavers Cooperative Society to improve market access for weavers.

5) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Government of India extended the National Piped Natural Gas Drive 2.0 by three months till 30 June 2026 to sustain momentum in nationwide expansion of Piped Natural Gas connectivity and increase the share of natural gas to 15 percent in India’s energy basket.

Detailed Explanation:

The Government of India extended the National Piped Natural Gas Drive 2.0 by three months till 30 June 2026 to sustain momentum in nationwide expansion of Piped Natural Gas connectivity and increase the share of natural gas to 15 percent in India’s energy basket.

The initiative was earlier scheduled to conclude, and the extension aims to accelerate household and commercial natural gas connectivity and support the transition towards a gas based economy in India.

The National Piped Natural Gas Drive 2.0 was launched by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board from 1 January 2026 to 31 March 2026, bringing together City Gas Distribution companies across India under the theme “Har Ghar Piped Natural Gas Har Gaadi Compressed Natural Gas.”

Under the initiative, the Government of India aims to extend natural gas pipeline connectivity to 37 additional Geographical Areas that are currently not connected to the national gas pipeline network.

 

6) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Lok Sabha passed an amendment to the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 2014 declaring Amaravati as the sole capital of Andhra Pradesh, marking a major administrative and political shift in the state capital structure.

The amendment replaces the earlier provision under Section 5 of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 2014 and clearly states that Amaravati shall be the capital of Andhra Pradesh.

The amendment has been given retrospective effect from 2 June 2024, thereby restoring the single capital status of Amaravati and ending the earlier three capital proposal framework.

Detailed Explanation:

The Lok Sabha passed an amendment to the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 2014 declaring Amaravati as the sole capital of Andhra Pradesh, marking a major administrative and political shift in the state capital structure.

The amendment replaces the earlier provision under Section 5 of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 2014 and clearly states that Amaravati shall be the capital of Andhra Pradesh.

The amendment has been given retrospective effect from 2 June 2024, thereby restoring the single capital status of Amaravati and ending the earlier three capital proposal framework.

After the bifurcation of the erstwhile Andhra Pradesh in 2014, Hyderabad served as the common capital of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana for a period of up to 10 years as provided under the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 2014.

As per the provisions of the Act, Hyderabad was to become the exclusive capital of Telangana after completion of the transition period, requiring Andhra Pradesh to establish its own permanent capital.

7) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Government of Delhi introduced the Lakhpati Bitiya Yojana to support girl child education and long term financial security from birth to higher education, through a gazette notification issued.

The scheme has been implemented under the leadership of Chief Minister Rekha Gupta and it replaces the earlier Ladli Scheme of the Delhi Government.

The scheme provides phase wise financial assistance linked to educational milestones, with total assistance reaching Rupees 61,000, which can grow up to approximately Rupees 1.20 lakh with interest at maturity.

Detailed Explanation:

The Government of Delhi introduced the Lakhpati Bitiya Yojana to support girl child education and long term financial security from birth to higher education, through a gazette notification issued.

The scheme has been implemented under the leadership of Chief Minister Rekha Gupta and it replaces the earlier Ladli Scheme of the Delhi Government.

The scheme provides phase wise financial assistance linked to educational milestones, with total assistance reaching Rupees 61,000, which can grow up to approximately Rupees 1.20 lakh with interest at maturity.

The scheme aims to:

promote education of girl children from school level to higher education

prevent early marriage of girls

ensure financial independence and empowerment of girls

support families belonging to economically weaker sections

Under the financial assistance structure of the scheme, eligible beneficiaries will receive:

Rupees 11,000 at birth

Rupees 5,000 each at Classes 1, 6, 9, 11, and 12

Rupees 10,000 on completion of one year diploma course

Rupees 20,000 on completion of two to three year diploma course

up to Rupees 25,000 on completion of four year graduation course

The total assistance amount of Rupees 61,000 is deposited in phases, and it will mature to approximately Rupees 1.20 lakh with interest, which can be accessed after completion of Class 12 or after attaining the age of 18 or 21 years as per scheme provisions.

8) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Tripura achieved a major milestone as three Panchayats secured top honours at the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar 2025 and Nanaji Deshmukh Sarvottam Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar 2025, presented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.

Sepahijala District Panchayat secured 1st rank in the Best District Panchayat category under the Nanaji Deshmukh Sarvottam Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar 2025.

Kanchanbari Gram Panchayat of Unakoti district secured 1st rank under the Healthy Panchayat category of the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar 2025.

Detailed Explanation:

Tripura achieved a major milestone as three Panchayats secured top honours at the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar 2025 and Nanaji Deshmukh Sarvottam Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar 2025, presented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.

Sepahijala District Panchayat secured 1st rank in the Best District Panchayat category under the Nanaji Deshmukh Sarvottam Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar 2025.

Kanchanbari Gram Panchayat of Unakoti district secured 1st rank under the Healthy Panchayat category of the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar 2025.

Baikunthapur Gram Panchayat of West Tripura district secured 3rd rank under the Women Friendly Panchayat category of the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar 2025.

Financial incentives announced:

Sepahijala District Panchayat will receive Rs 5 crore

Kanchanbari Gram Panchayat will receive Rs 1 crore

Baikunthapur Gram Panchayat will receive Rs 50 lakh

9) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Air India signed a codeshare agreement with Uzbekistan Airways to strengthen air connectivity between India and the Central Asia region.

Under the agreement, Air India placed its Air India designator code on Uzbekistan Airways operated flights on the following routes:

Delhi to Tashkent

Mumbai to Tashkent

Goa to Tashkent

Detailed Explanation:

Air India signed a codeshare agreement with Uzbekistan Airways to strengthen air connectivity between India and the Central Asia region.

Under the agreement, Air India placed its Air India designator code on Uzbekistan Airways operated flights on the following routes:

Delhi to Tashkent

Mumbai to Tashkent

Goa to Tashkent

The two airlines also established an interline arrangement, enabling Air India passengers to travel to Tashkent and further connect to multiple destinations within Uzbekistan through the Uzbekistan Airways network.

The onward connectivity from Tashkent includes important cities such as:

Samarkand

Qarshi

Nukus

Termez

Bukhara

Fergana

Namangan

10) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The Government of Meghalaya signed a Memorandum of Understanding with Starlink India on 1 April 2026 to improve high speed internet connectivity across remote and underserved regions of the state.

Under the agreement, Starlink India will provide satellite internet connectivity using Low Earth Orbit satellites, which ensures faster and more reliable internet connectivity compared to traditional broadband networks, especially in difficult terrains.

Detailed Explanation:

The Government of Meghalaya signed a Memorandum of Understanding with Starlink India on 1 April 2026 to improve high speed internet connectivity across remote and underserved regions of the state.

The agreement aims to strengthen digital infrastructure in Meghalaya by delivering satellite-based internet services in geographically difficult and remote hilly regions, thereby helping bridge the digital divide in the North Eastern region of India.

Chief Minister of Meghalaya Conrad K Sangma stated that the partnership will significantly transform sectors such as education, healthcare, governance, rural livelihoods, and digital service delivery in the state.

Under the agreement, Starlink India will provide satellite internet connectivity using Low Earth Orbit satellites, which ensures faster and more reliable internet connectivity compared to traditional broadband networks, especially in difficult terrains.

11) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Singapore Changi Airport was named the World’s Best Airport 2026 at the Skytrax World Airport Awards 2026 held during the Passenger Terminal Expo and Conference World in London.

Singapore Changi Airport received the World’s Best Airport title for the 14th time since 2000, reaffirming its global leadership in airport services and infrastructure.

Seoul Incheon International Airport ranked second globally and received the award for World’s Most Family Friendly Airport.

Detailed Explanation:

Singapore Changi Airport was named the World’s Best Airport 2026 at the Skytrax World Airport Awards 2026 held during the Passenger Terminal Expo and Conference World in London.

Singapore Changi Airport received the World’s Best Airport title for the 14th time since 2000, reaffirming its global leadership in airport services and infrastructure.

In addition to the top global ranking, Singapore Changi Airport also won awards for:

World’s Best Airport Dining

Best Airport in the 60 to 70 Million Passenger Category

Best Airport Immigration Service

Best Airport in Asia

Seoul Incheon International Airport ranked second globally and received the award for World’s Most Family-Friendly Airport.

Tokyo Haneda Airport ranked third globally and received awards for:

World’s Cleanest Airport Major Airport Category

World’s Best Domestic Airport

World’s Best Airport for Persons with Reduced Mobility and Accessible Facilities

Hong Kong International Airport ranked fourth globally and received key service-related awards at the Skytrax World Airport Awards 2026.

Narita International Airport ranked fifth globally and received the World’s Best Airport Staff award.

12) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Ministry of Defence (MoD) has achieved 100% utilisation of its capital outlay of ₹1.86 lakh crore for Defence Services in FY 2025–26 (at Revised Estimates stage).

This achievement comes after a similar full utilisation of the capital budget in FY 2024–25, marking consistent high expenditure performance.

Detailed Explanation:

The Ministry of Defence (MoD) has achieved 100% utilisation of its capital outlay of ₹1.86 lakh crore for Defence Services in FY 2025–26 (at Revised Estimates stage).

This achievement comes after a similar full utilisation of the capital budget in FY 2024–25, marking consistent high expenditure performance.

The overall Defence Budget utilisation (including MoD Civil, Pension, etc.) stood at 99.62% of the final allocation in FY 2025–26.

The original capital outlay of ₹1.80 lakh crore was later enhanced by the Ministry of Finance based on higher spending momentum and increased requirements of the Armed Forces.

Increased allocation was driven by modernisation needs of the Armed Forces, especially after Operation Sindoor.

Major areas of capital expenditure include aircraft and aero engines, land systems, electronic warfare equipment, armaments, shipbuilding, aviation stores, and projectiles.

 

13) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Ministry of Defence (MoD) signed a capital acquisition contract worth ₹1,950 crore with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) for the procurement of two Mountain Radar systems for the Indian Air Force (IAF).

The contract was signed in New Delhi under the Buy (Indian–Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured – IDDM) category, promoting Aatmanirbhar Bharat and Make in India initiatives.

The Mountain Radar system has been indigenously designed and developed by the Electronics and Radar Development Establishment (LRDE) of DRDO and will be manufactured by BEL.

Detailed Explanation:

The Ministry of Defence (MoD) signed a capital acquisition contract worth ₹1,950 crore with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) for the procurement of two Mountain Radar systems for the Indian Air Force (IAF).

The contract was signed in New Delhi under the Buy (Indian–Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured – IDDM) category, promoting Aatmanirbhar Bharat and Make in India initiatives.

The Mountain Radar system has been indigenously designed and developed by the Electronics and Radar Development Establishment (LRDE) of DRDO and will be manufactured by BEL.

The system is designed for high-altitude terrain operations, overcoming line-of-sight limitations and harsh weather conditions.

It is capable of detecting fighter aircraft, drones, and cruise missiles.

The radars will enhance border surveillance, early warning capability, situational awareness, and response time within the Integrated Air Defence Network.

The system will be integrated into the Integrated Air Command, Control and Communication System (IACCCS).

14) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

The Indian Navy received the delivery of ‘Malwan’, the second of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC) from Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL), Kochi.

The vessel has been indigenously designed and constructed by CSL as per Indian Navy specifications and DNV Classification Rules.

Detailed Explanation:

The Indian Navy received the delivery of ‘Malwan’, the second of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC) from Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL), Kochi.

The vessel has been indigenously designed and constructed by CSL as per Indian Navy specifications and DNV Classification Rules.

The ship is named after Malwan, a historic coastal town in Maharashtra, associated with the maritime legacy of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.

It also revives the legacy of the earlier INS Malwan (a minesweeper decommissioned in 2003), reflecting the Navy’s tradition of preserving historic warship names.

‘Malwan’ ASW SWC is designed for underwater surveillance and Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) operations in coastal waters.

It is also capable of Low Intensity Maritime Operations (LIMO) and mine warfare operations.

15) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

INS Shachi is part of the Navy’s Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel (NGOPV) programme, launched in the presence of Smt. Shagun Sobti, Vice Admiral Tarun, V K Parmar, and senior naval officials.

The launch of INS Shachi and delivery of ICGS Achal marks a key step in strengthening indigenous naval capabilities and enhancing coastal surveillance and maritime security.

Detailed Explanation:

Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) achieved a major milestone with the ceremonial launch of INS Shachi (Yard 1280) for the Indian Navy and the delivery of ICGS Achal (Yard 1274) to the Indian Coast Guard.

INS Shachi is part of the Navy’s Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel (NGOPV) programme, launched in the presence of Smt. Shagun Sobti, Vice Admiral Tarun, V K Parmar, and senior naval officials.

The launch of INS Shachi and delivery of ICGS Achal marks a key step in strengthening indigenous naval capabilities and enhancing coastal surveillance and maritime security.

Chairman & Managing Director Shri Brajesh Kumar Upadhyay highlighted that GSL has launched 14 vessels in the last 600 days, demonstrating strong execution capability and growing production capacity.

Both vessels showcase high indigenous content: over 65% in ICGS Achal and around 76% in INS Shachi, supporting Aatmanirbhar Bharat and Make in India initiatives.

16) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth, PVSM, UYSM, AVSM has assumed charge as the Vice Chief of the Army Staff (VCOA(a) Lt Gen Manoj Pande

He is an alumnus of the National Defence Academy (NDA), Khadakwasla and was commissioned into the Armoured Corps in December 1986.

Detailed Explanation:

Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth, PVSM, UYSM, AVSM has assumed charge as the Vice Chief of the Army Staff (VCOAS).

He is an alumnus of the National Defence Academy (NDA), Khadakwasla and was commissioned into the Armoured Corps in December 1986.

He has nearly four decades of distinguished military service with extensive operational and counter-insurgency experience.

He has commanded key formations including an Armoured Regiment (Desert Sector), an Armoured Brigade (Developed Sector), and a Counter Insurgency Force in Jammu & Kashmir.

As a Lieutenant General, he commanded the Sudarshan Chakra Corps and later served as GOC, Delhi Area, managing major national and international engagements.

17) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Burra Vamsi Rama Mohan has been appointed as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd (POWERGRID).

The appointment is effective from April 1, 2026, as per the Ministry of Power (MoP) order.

Detailed Explanation:

Burra Vamsi Rama Mohan has been appointed as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd (POWERGRID).

The appointment is effective from April 1, 2026, as per the Ministry of Power (MoP) order.

His tenure will continue from the date of assumption of charge till July 31, 2030 (superannuation) or until further orders, whichever is earlier.

As per the regulatory filing, he is not related to any existing Directors or Key Managerial Personnel and is eligible under all applicable norms.

He has also not been barred by SEBI or any other authority from holding the post of CMD.

He brings over 33 years of experience in the power transmission and telecom sectors.

18) Answer: E

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) has appointed Vir Vikram Yadav (1996-batch IAS, Odisha cadre) as the Director General (DG) of Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) under the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA).

Vir Vikram Yadav succeeds Faiz Ahmed Kidwai, who has been appointed as Additional Secretary in the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (MoPP&P).

19) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Costa Rica has launched a free mobile application (ICP App) to help users identify venomous snakes and reduce risks of misidentification.

The app has been developed by the Clodomiro Picado Institute, Universidad de Costa Rica.

Detailed Explanation:

Costa Rica has launched a free mobile application (ICP App) to help users identify venomous snakes and reduce risks of misidentification.

The app has been developed by the Clodomiro Picado Institute, Universidad de Costa Rica.

The main objective is to provide scientific and verified information for residents and tourists to ensure safer human–wildlife interaction.

The app addresses frequent public queries regarding snake identification, which previously led to confusion, panic, or harm to non-venomous species.

It replaces reliance on informal or inaccurate sources by centralising authentic scientific data.

20) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Consultative Committee Management System (CCMS) Portal was launched by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs to facilitate the management and monitoring of Consultative Committee meetings.

The portal helps in making the functioning of Consultative Committees smoother, structured, and systematically organized.

Detailed Explanation:

The Consultative Committee Management System (CCMS) Portal was launched by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs to facilitate the management and monitoring of Consultative Committee meetings.

The portal helps in making the functioning of Consultative Committees smoother, structured, and systematically organized.

The Consultative Committees were created to provide an informal platform for discussion between Members of Parliament (MPs) and the Government.

As per the Guidelines on Constitution, Functions and Procedures of Consultative Committees, MPs are free to discuss any matter that can be appropriately raised in Parliament.

It is considered confidential and not desirable to refer in either House of Parliament to discussions held in Consultative Committee meetings.

This confidentiality rule is binding on both the Government and Members of Parliament.

21) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) launched the Sexual Harassment Electronic Box (SHe-Box) Portal on August 29, 2024 as a digital governance initiative for implementing the PoSH Act, 2013.

As on 27 March 2026, over 1,61,000 workplaces (public and private sectors) with more than 10 employees have been onboarded on the portal.

Detailed Explanation:

The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) launched the Sexual Harassment Electronic Box (SHe-Box) Portal on August 29, 2024 as a digital governance initiative for implementing the PoSH Act, 2013.

The SHe-Box Portal is designed for the Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (PoSH Act, 2013).

As on 27 March 2026, over 1,61,000 workplaces (public and private sectors) with more than 10 employees have been onboarded on the portal.

Details of over 68,460 Internal Committees (ICs) have been updated on the portal by onboarded workplaces.

Information of 777 Local Committees (LCs) at the district level is also available on the portal.

22) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Poshan Tracker digital application is an ICT-based governance tool used for monitoring and tracking Anganwadi Centres (AWCs), Anganwadi Workers (AWWs), and beneficiaries on defined indicators.

Children up to 6 years of age under Mission Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 are not required to undergo e-KYC/FRS, and guardians can complete verification on their behalf.

Detailed Explanation:

The Poshan Tracker digital application is an ICT-based governance tool used for monitoring and tracking Anganwadi Centres (AWCs), Anganwadi Workers (AWWs), and beneficiaries on defined indicators.

It enables near real-time data collection for Anganwadi Services under the nutrition programme.

To ensure transparency, prevent duplication, and avoid leakage of benefits, the Ministry introduced the Face Recognition System (FRS) in August 2024.

The FRS was first piloted in 6 States/UTs: Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana, Odisha, Uttar Pradesh, and Chandigarh.

It was later expanded on a pan-India basis in December 2024, with an option for THR distribution without FRS.

The system ensures that Supplementary Nutrition (THR) reaches only genuine and intended beneficiaries.

Children up to 6 years of age under Mission Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 are not required to undergo e-KYC/FRS, and guardians can complete verification on their behalf.

23) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

Anahat Singh and Abhay Singh were named Asian Squash Federation Player of the Year 2025 by the Asian Squash Federation in the girls’ Under 19 category and men’s category Dato Alex Lee Award respectively.

The awards recognise their outstanding performances during the 2024 to 2025 squash season at the continental level.

The India men's national junior squash team received the Team of the Year award after securing a bronze medal at the World Junior Team Championships 2025 held in Egypt.

Detailed Explanation:

Anahat Singh and Abhay Singh were named Asian Squash Federation Player of the Year 2025 by the Asian Squash Federation in the girls’ Under 19 category and men’s category Dato Alex Lee Award respectively.

The awards recognise their outstanding performances during the 2024 to 2025 squash season at the continental level.

The official award ceremony is scheduled to be held during the Asian Junior Individual Championships in Panzhihua in May 2026.

The ASF Awards 2025 are presented to recognise excellence in squash across Asia, based on recommendations by the ASF Selection Panel and approval by the ASF Management Committee.

Satomi Watanabe of Japan won the Senior Women’s Player of the Year award at the ASF Awards 2025.

The India men's national junior squash team received the Team of the Year award after securing a bronze medal at the World Junior Team Championships 2025 held in Egypt.

24) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

Singapore Changi Airport was named the World’s Best Airport 2026 at the Skytrax World Airport Awards 2026 held during the Passenger Terminal Expo and Conference World in London.

Manohar International Airport ranked 64th globally, showing improvement in its global ranking position.

Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport ranked 66th globally, also improving its position in the rankings.

Detailed Explanation:

Singapore Changi Airport was named the World’s Best Airport 2026 at the Skytrax World Airport Awards 2026 held during the Passenger Terminal Expo and Conference World in London.

Indira Gandhi International Airport ranked 28th globally, improving from 32nd position earlier, and received the award for Best Airport in India and South Asia.

Kempegowda International Airport ranked 41st globally and received the Best Regional Airport in India and South Asia award for the third consecutive year.

Rajiv Gandhi International Airport received the Best Airport Staff in India and South Asia 2026 award, continuing its recognition for service excellence.

Manohar International Airport ranked 64th globally, showing improvement in its global ranking position.

Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport ranked 66th globally, also improving its position in the rankings.

25) Answer: A

Anahat Singh and Abhay Singh were named Asian Squash Federation Player of the Year 2025 by the Asian Squash Federation in the girls’ Under 19 category and men’s category Dato Alex Lee Award respectively.

The Hong Kong China women's national junior squash team received the Women’s Team of the Year award for their performance at the same championship.