Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2024 of 03rd & 04th November 2024. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2024 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.

 

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1) How many days after allocation must mutual funds use the revenues of new fund offers, according to the Securities and Exchange Board of India?

(a) 90days

(b) 15days

(c) 60days

(d) 45days

(e) 30days

2) To help banks identify fraudulent mule accounts, the Reserve Bank of India Innovation Hub introduces MuleHunter, an artificial intelligence tool. In addition to being unlawful under tax rules, which company and RBI regulations forbid using these accounts?

(a) SIDBI

(b) SEBI

(c) PFDRA

(d) IRDAI

(e) NABARD

3) What percentage interest rate will the Reserve Bank of India declare for the GOI Floating Rate Bond 2034 during the next six months?

(a) 7.53%

(b) 7.51%

(c) 7.52%

(d) 7.54%

(e) 7.55%

4) The _______________ half-yearly report on foreign exchange reserve management was produced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) with reference to the end of September 2024.

(a) 41st

(b) 42nd

(c) 43rd

(d) 44th

(e) 45th

5) What was the minimum percentage of capital market funding is required of non-banking finance companies by the Reserve Bank of India?

(a) 15%

(b) 10%

(c) 20%

(d) 25%

(e) 30%

6) The requirements for Central Counterparties (CCPs) have been revised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as of June 2019. A net value of______ crore is needed to obtain central counterparty authorization.

(a) Rs 100crore

(b) Rs 200crore

(c) Rs 300crore

(d) Rs 400crore

(e) Rs 500crore

7) The Enforcement Directorate (ED) has established internal rules for recording statements under which section of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), with emphasis on procedural improvements and humane working hours?

(a) Sec 48

(b) Sec 40

(c) Sec 46

(d) Sec 50

(e) Sec 52

8) The Power Ministry proposes a 15-year PPA for renewable energy projects using energy storage systems. How long may PPAs be allowed under the criteria, if mentioned in the Request for Selection (RfS) document?

(a) 10years

(b) 12years

(c) 15years

(d) 20years

(e) 25years

9) Recently, the Prime Minister Narendra Modi chastised the Delhi administration and also which governments for failing to implement the Ayushman Bharat health insurance system, a hallmark program that offers free medical treatment?

(a) Karnataka

(b) West Bengal

(c) Odisha

(d) TamilNadu

(e) Kerala

10) In Which state's tourism, accessibility, and sustainability initiatives totaling more than ₹280 crore were
inaugurated and the foundation stone laid by Prime Minister Narendra Modi?

(a) Karnataka

(b) Maharashtra

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Gujarat

(e) Kerala

11) In order to streamline and simplify the birth and death registration procedure, which ministry released a new mobile application?

(a) Home Affairs

(b) Education

(c) Urban & Housing

(d) Information & Technology

(e) Tribal

12) Which nation has chosen not to join China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), making it the second BRICS nation to do so after India?

(a) Russia

(b) South Africa

(c) Brazil

(d) Ethiopia

(e) UAE

13) How much money does Arya.ag receive from the US International Development Finance Corporation?

(a) $19.8 million

(b) $17.8 million

(c) $18.8 million

(d) $16.8 million

(e) $15.8 million

14) As part of the NDA government's "Super Six" electoral pledges, which state chief minister introduced the Deepam 2.0 program, which offers qualified households three free LPG cylinders per year?

(a) Karnataka

(b) Maharashtra

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Gujarat

(e) Himachal Pradesh

15) To upgrade one health facility in each of the 68 assembly seats to a model health institute, which government has allotted ₹1 crore per assembly constituency?

(a) Karnataka

(b) Maharashtra

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Gujarat

(e) Himachal Pradesh

16) Which government has introduced two major start-up initiatives, Accelerator Network and ELEVATE 2024, under its Department of Electronics, IT, and Biotechnology (Bt)?

(a)  Karnataka

(b) Maharashtra

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Gujarat

(e) Himachal Pradesh

17) As part of the 2024–25 Ethanol provide Year (ESY), TruAlt Bioenergy recently won a significant contract to provide Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) with how many million liters of ethanol?

(a) 100

(b) 200

(c) 300

(d) 400

(e) 500

18) Which nation and India fortify their relationship with a strategic emphasis on infrastructure and renewable energy?

(a) Norway

(b) Spain

(c) Hurugay

(d) Hong Kong

(e) Denmark

19) Recently, the Adani Enterprises has canceled plans to demerge its food FMCG business to Adani Wilmar. Adani Wilmar was listed in what year and must comply with SEBI requirements mandating promoters to reduce their stake to 75% by 2025?

(a) 2020

(b) 2019

(c) 2021

(d) 2022

(e) 2023

20) Which state agricultural university and the Central Soil Salinity Research Institute (CSSRI) have signed Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) with Syngenta India?

(a) Assam

(b) Haryana

(c) Rajasthan

(d) Sikkim

(e) UttarPradesh

21) Which nation looked into ways to strengthen collaboration in important areas like mining, petrochemicals, and fertilizers in order to increase bilateral trade and investments with India?

(a) Saudi Arabia

(b) Peru

(c) Iran

(d) Netherland

(e) Russia

22) According to a World Health Organization report, tuberculosis is now the leading infectious disease cause of death, surpassing COVID-19. Which nation's government provides the most bilateral TB funding?

(a) Pakistan

(b) Indonesia

(c) USA

(d) China

(e) Philippines

23) How many Multi-Role Fighter Aircraft (MRFA) is the Indian government reevaluating its procurement methodology for in view of the 36 Rafale fighter planes that were previously controversially purchased?

(a) 111

(b) 112

(c) 113

(d) 114

(e) 110

24) In which nation did the Asian Football Confederation (AFC) hold its annual awards presentation, where Son Heung-min was named Asia's International Player of the Year for the fourth time?

(a) South Korea

(b) Indonesia

(c) USA

(d) China

(e) Philippines

25) Which country's wicketkeeper-batsman Matthew Wade announced his retirement from international cricket, after a remarkable 13-year career?

(a) New Zealand

(b) Australia

(c) South Africa

(d) England

(e) Srilanka

26) Which nation hosted a ceremony where Spanish midfielders Rodri and Aitana Bonmatí were recognized as the finest soccer players in the world and won the men's and women's Ballon d'Or trophies, respectively?

(a) France

(b) Australia

(c) South Africa

(d) England

(e) Srilanka

27) Which player in the ICC Women's ODI Bowler Rankings rises to a career-high number two?

(a) Sophie Ecclestone

(b) Deepti Sharma

(c) Sophie Devine

(d) Amelie Kerr

(e) Lea Tahuhu

28) Recently the Vigilance Awareness Week, organized by the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), will take place this year from ____________ to December 3, 2024.

(a) October 27

(b) October 26

(c) October 28

(d) October 29

(e) October 30

29) On which date is the International Day to End Impunity for Crimes Against Journalists (IDEI) commemorated each year?

(a) November 2

(b) November 1

(c) November 3

(d) November 4

(e) November 5

30) After how many years after the initial reporting deadline, GST taxpayers are no longer able to submit their monthly and yearly GST returns?

(a) 1years

(b) 2years

(c) 3years

(d) 5years

(e) 4years

Answers :

1) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) aims to improve the deployment of funds raised by asset management companies (AMCs) during New Fund Offers (NFOs) to ensure timely investment and protect investor interests.

Deployment Timeline: AMCs are required to deploy funds raised through NFOs within 30 business days of allotment.

Detailed Explanation:

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) aims to improve the deployment of funds raised by asset management companies (AMCs) during New Fund Offers (NFOs) to ensure timely investment and protect investor interests.

Deployment Timeline: AMCs are required to deploy funds raised through NFOs within 30 business days of allotment.

Consequences of Non-Compliance:If AMCs do not meet the 30-day deadline without requesting an extension, they will be barred from launching new schemes until the funds are deployed.

AMCs will not be allowed to impose exit loads on investors who withdraw their investments after a 60-day grace period.

Current Regulations: While AMCs must launch a scheme within six months of receiving final observations from SEBI, there are currently no specific regulations mandating the speed of fund deployment.

Past Performance: Data from the past three financial years shows that while many NFOs deploy funds efficiently, some schemes took over 90 days for fund allocation.

2) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India Innovation Hub (RBIH) has created an artificial intelligence and machine learning (AI/ML) model named MuleHunter AI aimed at detecting mule accounts for banks and financial institutions.

These accounts are also illegal under tax laws, and their usage is prohibited by both the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and RBI regulations.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India Innovation Hub (RBIH) has created an artificial intelligence and machine learning (AI/ML) model named MuleHunter AI aimed at detecting mule accounts for banks and financial institutions.

The MuleHunter AI model and its applications were presented at the Global Fintech Fest in August, highlighting its relevance and utility in the fintech space.

Definition of Mule Accounts: Mule accounts are accounts that are created by one individual but operated by another, often utilised for illicit activities such as money laundering and tax evasion.

Legal Implications: The operation of mule accounts violates various regulations and can lead to prosecution under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).

These accounts are also illegal under tax laws, and their usage is prohibited by both the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and RBI regulations.

3) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

The rate of interest on the Government of India Floating Rate Bond 2034 (GOI FRB 2034) applicable for the half year October 30, 2024 to April 29, 2025 shall be 7.53% per annum.

RBI Floating Rate Savings Bonds have a seven-year lock-in period.

Detailed Explanation:

The rate of interest on the Government of India Floating Rate Bond 2034 (GOI FRB 2034) applicable for the half year October 30, 2024 to April 29, 2025 shall be 7.53% per annum.

RBI Floating Rate Savings Bonds have a seven-year lock-in period.

Premature withdrawal is generally not allowed, except for senior citizens who can withdraw early with a penalty after a minimum lock-in period.

Age-Based Lock-in Variations:

For individuals aged 60 to 70 years: Lock-in period is six years.

For individuals aged 70 to 80 years: Lock-in period is five years.

For individuals over 80 years: Lock-in period is four years.

Interest Rate Reset: The interest rate on the bonds is reset biannually.

Minimum Subscription: The minimum subscription amount is ₹1,000, with subsequent investments in multiples of ₹1,000.

No Maximum Limit: There is no upper limit on the total investment amount in these bonds.

Sovereign Guarantee: The bonds are issued by the RBI and are backed by a sovereign guarantee, making them a safe investment.

4) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released the 43rd half-yearly report on management of foreign exchange reserves with reference to end-September 2024.

Reserve Growth: Forex reserves increased from $646.42 billion at the end of March 2024 to $705.78 billion by the end of September 2024.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released the 43rd half-yearly report on management of foreign exchange reserves with reference to end-September 2024.

Reserve Growth: Forex reserves increased from $646.42 billion at the end of March 2024 to $705.78 billion by the end of September 2024.

Foreign Currency Assets (FCA) : The biggest contributor to India's Forex reserves is foreign currency assets, followed by gold.

FCA : FCA is maintained as a multi-currency portfolio comprising major currencies, such as, US dollar, Euro, Pound sterling, Japanese yen, etc. and are valued in terms of US dollars.

SDR (Special Drawing Rights): Values in SDR million have been indicated in parentheses.

RTP refers to the Reserve Tranche Position in the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

5) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has mandated that upper-layer Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) must secure a minimum of 25% of their total borrowings from capital market instruments.

This includes instruments like:

Commercial Papers (CPs)

Non-Convertible Debentures (NCDs)

External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs)

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has mandated that upper-layer Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) must secure a minimum of 25% of their total borrowings from capital market instruments.

This includes instruments like:

Commercial Papers (CPs)

Non-Convertible Debentures (NCDs)

External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs)

Increased Risk Weight on Bank Loans to NBFCs: In November,2023 RBI raised the risk weight on bank loans to NBFCs by 25% above the standard risk weight based on external ratings when the latter falls below 100%. This adjustment resulted in a noticeable slowdown in bank lending to NBFCs.

Decline in Bank Loans to NBFCs: According to RBI’s sectoral credit deployment data as of August 23, 2024:

Bank loans to NBFCs grew by 12% year-on-year (₹15.22 lakh crore).

This growth rate was significantly lower compared to the 21% year-on-year growth seen in the same period in the previous year.

6) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has updated the criteria for Central Counterparties (CCPs) as of June 2019.

Definition of CCP: A Central Counterparty (CCP) is a system provider that uses novation to act as an intermediary between participants in transactions accepted for settlement.

Reserve Bank of India establishes a net worth requirement of ₹300 crore for central counterparty authorization

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has updated the criteria for Central Counterparties (CCPs) as of June 2019.

Definition of CCP: A Central Counterparty (CCP) is a system provider that uses novation to act as an intermediary between participants in transactions accepted for settlement.

It acts as the buyer to every seller and the seller to every buyer, facilitating the settlement of their transactions.

Submission of Financials : According to the revised directions, every authorised CCP has to submit an audited net-worth certificate at the close of the financial year from the statutory auditor within six months of the closure of the financial year.

Regulatory Compliance : Every authorised CCP should constitute a regulatory compliance committee chaired by an independent director.

Board Composition: The Board of an authorized CCP must include:

Nominee Directors

Independent Directors

Managing Director

Additional Directors as notified by RBI

7) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Enforcement Directorate (ED) has issued detailed internal guidelines for its officers on recording statements under Section 50 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), emphasizing procedural improvements and humane working hours.

This directive follows a Bombay High Court ruling in the case of Ram Kotumal Issrani vs the Directorate of Enforcement that urged the ED to establish timing protocols for recording statements.

Detailed Explanation:

The Enforcement Directorate (ED) has issued detailed internal guidelines for its officers on recording statements under Section 50 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), emphasizing procedural improvements and humane working hours.

This directive follows a Bombay High Court ruling in the case of Ram Kotumal Issrani vs the Directorate of Enforcement that urged the ED to establish timing protocols for recording statements.

Timing Protocol: The guidelines stress that officers should aim to record statements during regular office hours rather than late at night. This aims to ensure better working conditions and convenience for the individuals involved.

Preparation Requirements: ED officers are instructed to be well-prepared with necessary documents and questionnaires before the interview, minimizing delays. The guidelines specify that officers should avoid keeping individuals waiting and adhere to the scheduled time.

Expedited Examination: Given the nature of money laundering, where there is a high risk of dissipation or concealment of crime proceeds and destruction of digital evidence, officers are encouraged to complete the examination within a day or two to prevent any tampering with evidence.

8) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The Ministry of Power has issued draft guidelines for a 15-year Power Purchase Agreement (PPA) through Tariff-Based Competitive Bidding (TBCB) to procure firm and dispatchable power from grid-connected renewable energy (RE) projects with Energy Storage Systems (ESS).

Standard 15-Year PPA: The proposed agreement duration is 15 years, effective from the scheduled or extended commencement-of-supply date.

Option for Longer PPA: The guidelines allow for PPAs up to 25 years, if specified in the Request for Selection (RfS) document.

Detailed Explanation:

The Ministry of Power has issued draft guidelines for a 15-year Power Purchase Agreement (PPA) through Tariff-Based Competitive Bidding (TBCB) to procure firm and dispatchable power from grid-connected renewable energy (RE) projects with Energy Storage Systems (ESS).

Standard 15-Year PPA: The proposed agreement duration is 15 years, effective from the scheduled or extended commencement-of-supply date.

Option for Longer PPA: The guidelines allow for PPAs up to 25 years, if specified in the Request for Selection (RfS) document.

Post-PPA Operation: Developers may continue to operate, upgrade, or repower their plants at their expense after the PPA term and participate in future bidding for any available capacity.

Automatic Weather Stations (AWS): Developers must install GPS-enabled AWS in line with technical standards from central agencies to ensure precise data availability, essential for grid management.

Cybersecurity Compliance: Compliance with cybersecurity regulations and government-issued directives is mandatory for all developers to safeguard against potential cyber threats.

9) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Prime Minister Narendra Modi criticized the Delhi and West Bengal governments for not implementing the Ayushman Bharat health insurance scheme, a flagship initiative providing free healthcare coverage.

He described this move as a "political decision" that deprives senior citizens aged 70 and above in these states of essential health benefits.

Detailed Explanation:

Prime Minister Narendra Modi criticized the Delhi and West Bengal governments for not implementing the Ayushman Bharat health insurance scheme, a flagship initiative providing free healthcare coverage.

He described this move as a "political decision" that deprives senior citizens aged 70 and above in these states of essential health benefits.

Affordable Medicines: Modi spotlighted the role of 14,000 Jan Aushadhi Kendras in reducing medical expenses, saving citizens up to Rs 30,000 crore.

Mission Indradhanush: The immunization program has been effective in protecting pregnant women and newborns from severe illnesses, enhancing maternal and child health across the country.

Ayushman Arogya Mandirs: Over 2 lakh health facilities have been set up for early diagnosis of diseases like cancer, aiming for proactive healthcare.

Modi introduced U-WIN, a new digital health platform that builds on the success of COWIN (COVID-19 vaccine platform) and UPI, India’s renowned digital payment system.

10) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated and laid the foundation stone for over ₹280 crore worth of projects in Ekta Nagar, Gujarat, focusing on tourism, accessibility, and sustainability in the region.

PM Modi addressed 653 Officer Trainees from 16 Indian civil services and three Bhutanese civil services, part of the 99th Common Foundation Course.

The theme for the training, “Roadmap for Aatmanirbhar and Viksit Bharat,” underscores the vision of a self-reliant and developed India.

Detailed Explanation:

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated and laid the foundation stone for over ₹280 crore worth of projects in Ekta Nagar, Gujarat, focusing on tourism, accessibility, and sustainability in the region.

PM Modi addressed 653 Officer Trainees from 16 Indian civil services and three Bhutanese civil services, part of the 99th Common Foundation Course.

The theme for the training, “Roadmap for Aatmanirbhar and Viksit Bharat,” underscores the vision of a self-reliant and developed India.

On Thursday, PM Modi will commemorate Rashtriya Ekta Diwas (National Unity Day), honoring the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, the Iron Man of India.

The day’s events will include floral tributes to Patel and the Ekta Diwas pledge, celebrating India’s unity.

11) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Amit Shah, India's Union Home Minister, unveiled a new mobile application designed to facilitate the registration of birth and death, making the process seamless and hassle-free.

This initiative is part of the Digital India vision spearheaded by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to integrate technology into governance.

The Civil Registration System (CRS) mobile app, developed by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, aims to significantly reduce the time needed for birth and death registrations.

Detailed Explanation:

Amit Shah, India's Union Home Minister, unveiled a new mobile application designed to facilitate the registration of birth and death, making the process seamless and hassle-free.

This initiative is part of the Digital India vision spearheaded by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to integrate technology into governance.

The Civil Registration System (CRS) mobile app, developed by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, aims to significantly reduce the time needed for birth and death registrations.

Citizens can now register these vital events anytime and from anywhere, in their state's official language.

Amit Shah also unveiled a statue of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel at the Janganana Bhawan, the office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner.

The launch coincides with the upcoming birth anniversary of Sardar Patel, India’s first home minister, celebrated on October 31.

Shah flagged off the 'Run for Unity' event, emphasizing the importance of Sardar Patel's contributions to India's unity and integrity.

He noted that this year's celebrations are held two days early due to Deepawali falling on October 31.

The Modi government has observed October 31 as 'Rashtriya Ekta Diwas' (National Unity Day) since 2014, reinforcing its commitment to national unity and security.

12) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Brazil has opted not to join China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), becoming the second BRICS country, after India, to reject the mega project.

BRICS Membership Expansion: BRICS originally included Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa, with Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE recently admitted as new members.

Detailed Explanation:

Brazil has opted not to join China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), becoming the second BRICS country, after India, to reject the mega project.

BRICS Membership Expansion: BRICS originally included Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa, with Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE recently admitted as new members.

Brazil's Strategic Considerations: The Brazilian government believes that joining the BRI would not yield immediate benefits and could complicate future relations with potential U.S. administrations.

13) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Arya.ag, a grain commerce platform, has secured $19.8 million from the US International Development Finance Corporation (DFC) to guarantee a debt facility for its agri-commerce subsidiary, Aryatech.

Detailed Explanation:

Arya.ag, a grain commerce platform, has secured $19.8 million from the US International Development Finance Corporation (DFC) to guarantee a debt facility for its agri-commerce subsidiary, Aryatech.

These funds will be utilised to connect farmers and Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) with buyers across the country, ensuring payment security, transaction transparency, and improved market access.

Arya.ag previously raised $29 million in an equity round last quarter, indicating strong investor interest in the agritech sector.

14) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Andhra Pradesh (AP) Chief Minister (CM) N. Chandrababu Naidu launched the Deepam 2.0 scheme, providing three free LPG cylinders annually to eligible families, as part of the NDA government's "Super Six" election promises.

Financial Commitment: The scheme is expected to cost the state ₹2,684 crore per year.

Detailed Explanation:

Andhra Pradesh (AP) Chief Minister (CM) N. Chandrababu Naidu launched the Deepam 2.0 scheme, providing three free LPG cylinders annually to eligible families, as part of the NDA government's "Super Six" election promises.

The scheme was officially launched in Eedupuram, Srikakulam district.

The scheme aligns with the NDA government's election promise to support women. Self-help groups (SHGs) will also be strengthened, aiming to empower more women as entrepreneurs.

Financial Commitment: The scheme is expected to cost the state ₹2,684 crore per year.

Beneficiaries will receive ₹876 (excluding the central subsidy of ₹25) credited to their personal accounts within 48 hours of purchasing each cylinder.

Pension Scheme: The state government increased welfare pensions, benefiting 64 lakh pensioners. Beneficiaries have the option to withdraw their pensions once every three months.

15) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

Himachal Pradesh (HP) government has allocated ₹1 crore per assembly constituency to upgrade one health institute in each of the 68 constituencies to a model health institute.

Purpose of Funds: The funds will be utilized to purchase essential machinery and equipment necessary for improving healthcare services at these institutes.

Detailed Explanation:

Himachal Pradesh (HP) government has allocated ₹1 crore per assembly constituency to upgrade one health institute in each of the 68 constituencies to a model health institute.

Purpose of Funds: The funds will be utilized to purchase essential machinery and equipment necessary for improving healthcare services at these institutes.

Mobile Clinic Initiative: Chief Minister Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu launched a mobile clinic bus service by the Tong-Len Charitable Trust based in Dharamshala, aimed at providing free medical tests and first-aid to 20,000 people.

Services Offered by Mobile Clinic: The mobile clinic is equipped to perform various tests, including kidney, liver, tuberculosis, diabetes, hormone-related blood tests, X-rays, ECG, and semen tests, all provided at no cost to patients.

Telemedicine Plans: The mobile clinic plans to introduce telemedicine services soon, enhancing access to healthcare for remote populations.

Emergency Medicine Development: The government is working on developing emergency medicine departments in casualty units at colleges across the state.

Cancer Care Initiatives: In response to an increasing number of cancer patients, the government is establishing advanced cancer institutes to provide state-of-the-art treatment.

16) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

The Karnataka government, through its Department of Electronics, IT, and Biotechnology (Bt), has launched two flagship start-up programs: ELEVATE 2024 and the Karnataka Accelerator Network (KAN).

Grant Amount: Provides grants up to ₹50 lakh per start-up.

Detailed Explanation:

The Karnataka government, through its Department of Electronics, IT, and Biotechnology (Bt), has launched two flagship start-up programs: ELEVATE 2024 and the Karnataka Accelerator Network (KAN).

Goal: The state aims to position itself among the top three global start-up ecosystems, leveraging programs like ELEVATE and KAN.

ELEVATE 2024 Program:Objective: To support early-stage start-ups with grants and incubation.

Grant Amount: Provides grants up to ₹50 lakh per start-up.

Additional Benefits: Includes incubation, mentorship, access to venture capital networks, and various incentives under the Karnataka Startup Policy 2022-27 (e.g., reimbursements for Patent Costs, Marketing Costs, GST, and Quality Certification Costs).

Karnataka’s Start-up Ecosystem: Karnataka ranks high in fostering start-ups with Bengaluru being home to 45 unicorns valued at a combined $161 billion.

Reach: Expected to benefit 302 start-ups across six cohorts over three years.

Karnataka Accelerator Network (KAN):Objective: Aims to support growth-stage start-ups with mentorship, market access, and funding.

17) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

TruAlt Bioenergy has recently secured a substantial contract to supply 300 million liters of ethanol to Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) as part of the 2024-25 Ethanol Supply Year (ESY).

This move supports the Ethanol Blending Program (EBP), aiming to achieve India’s target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol.

Detailed Explanation:

TruAlt Bioenergy has recently secured a substantial contract to supply 300 million liters of ethanol to Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) as part of the 2024-25 Ethanol Supply Year (ESY).

This move supports the Ethanol Blending Program (EBP), aiming to achieve India’s target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol.

In addition to this contract, TruAlt Bioenergy has secured 65 million liters of ethanol orders from private sector clients and 50 million liters of Extra Neutral Alcohol (ENA) for diverse industries.

The company aims to make a significant contribution to the 20% blending target through this tender and support further advancements beyond this milestone. This initiative is part of India’s roadmap for enhancing energy security and reducing carbon emissions.

In Cycle 1 of ESY 2024-25, OMCs allocated around 837 crore liters of ethanol, out of 970 crore liters offered by manufacturers. This allocation is part of the government’s ongoing efforts to support domestic ethanol production and distribution.

18) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

In a landmark visit, Spain’s PresidentH.E. Pedro Sánchez, the first Spanish President to visit India in 18 years, expressed robust support for expanding collaborations to align withIndia's renewable energy goals and infrastructure ambitions at the Spain-India Business Summit organised by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).

Detailed Explanation:

In a landmark visit, Spain’s PresidentH.E. Pedro Sánchez, the first Spanish President to visit India in 18 years, expressed robust support for expanding collaborations to align withIndia's renewable energy goals and infrastructure ambitions at the Spain-India Business Summit organised by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).

Sánchez emphasized Spain's expertise in renewable energy, particularly in solar and wind power, as a critical resource to support India’s target of generating 500 gigawatts of renewable energy by 2030.

He stated, “Spain is a world leader in clean energy. Our expertise can significantly contribute to India's green transition and energy security, combining Spanish innovation with India's vast potential for a positive impact on the global economy and environment.”

19) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

Adani Enterprises has officially cancelled its plans to demerge its food fast-moving consumer goods (FMCG) business to Adani Wilmar.

This decision follows a strategic review to comply with minimum public shareholding (MPS) requirements.

Current Shareholding Status: Adani Wilmar was listed in February 2022 and must adhere to SEBI regulations requiring promoters to reduce their stake to 75% by 2025. The current promoter group holds 87.87% of the company, including entities like the Adani group and Lence Pte.

Detailed Explanation:

Adani Enterprises has officially cancelled its plans to demerge its food fast-moving consumer goods (FMCG) business to Adani Wilmar.

This decision follows a strategic review to comply with minimum public shareholding (MPS) requirements.

Demerger Plan Background: The demerger, initially announced on August 1, 2024, was intended to allow Adani group promoters to consolidate control over Adani Wilmar by integrating the food FMCG business directly under their purview. Adani Enterprises holds approximately 44% of Adani Wilmar through Adani Commodities.

Compliance with MPS: The board of Adani Enterprises stated that during the implementation of the MPS strategy, the draft scheme of arrangement with Adani Wilmar would be withdrawn to provide clear direction to shareholders.

Current Shareholding Status: Adani Wilmar was listed in February 2022 and must adhere to SEBI regulations requiring promoters to reduce their stake to 75% by 2025. The current promoter group holds 87.87% of the company, including entities like the Adani group and Lence Pte.

20) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Syngenta India has entered into Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) with the Central Soil Salinity Research Institute (CSSRI) in Karnal and Choudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural University (HAU) in Hisar.

Detailed Explanation:

Syngenta India has entered into Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) with the Central Soil Salinity Research Institute (CSSRI) in Karnal and Choudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural University (HAU) in Hisar.

Training Programs: Plans for various training initiatives to educate farmers on sustainable practices.

ICT-Driven Tools: Development of decision-making tools utilizing Information and Communication Technology (ICT).

Capacity Building: Support for rural youth capacity building through Syngenta’s IRISE (Inculcating Rural India Skill Enhancement) initiative.

Safe Crop Protection Practices: Syngenta will also provide support in implementing safe crop protection methods.

21) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

India and Saudi Arabia explored avenues to enhance cooperation in key sectors, including fertilizers, petrochemicals, and mining, aiming to boost bilateral trade and investments.

Detailed Explanation:

India and Saudi Arabia explored avenues to enhance cooperation in key sectors, including fertilizers, petrochemicals, and mining, aiming to boost bilateral trade and investments.

Cultural Engagement: During his visit, Goyal inaugurated the 'Lulu Wali Diwali' event at Lulu Hypermarket, highlighting the introduction of Indian products to the Saudi market. He remarked on the opportunity for Saudi consumers to taste "exotic home-grown delights" from India.

Trade Partners: India is the second-largest trade partner for Saudi Arabia, while Saudi Arabia ranks as India's fourth-largest trading partner.

Bilateral Trade Figures: The total bilateral trade reached USD 43 billion in 2023-24, a decrease from $53 billion in the previous year.

Indian Business Presence: Over 2,700 Indian companies are registered as joint ventures or wholly-owned entities in Saudi Arabia, with investments totaling approximately $2 billion.

22) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The World Health Organization (WHO) in its latest report, announced that Five countries, including India, account for over half (56%) of the global TB burden: India (26%), Indonesia (10%), China (6.8%), the Philippines (6.8%), and Pakistan (6.3%).

Key Donors: The United States government is the largest bilateral donor for TB, and the Global Fund contributes to TB responses in LMICs, though funding remains insufficient.

Detailed Explanation:

The World Health Organization (WHO) in its latest report, announced that Five countries, including India, account for over half (56%) of the global TB burden: India (26%), Indonesia (10%), China (6.8%), the Philippines (6.8%), and Pakistan (6.3%).

India's Target: India aims to end TB by 2025, five years ahead of the global target.

Of an estimated 400,000 cases of MDR/RR-TB, only 44% were diagnosed and treated in 2023.

Funding Shortages:Financial resources for TB prevention and care decreased in 2023, falling significantly short of the target.

Only $5.7 billion of the $22 billion annual funding target was available in 2023.

Key Donors: The United States government is the largest bilateral donor for TB, and the Global Fund contributes to TB responses in LMICs, though funding remains insufficient.

23) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Indian government is reassessing its procurement model for acquiring 114 Multi-Role Fighter Aircraft (MRFA) in light of previous controversies surrounding the procurement of 36 Rafale fighter jets.

The Indian Air Force (IAF) is experiencing a significant shortage in squadron strength, currently at 30 squadrons, well below the sanctioned strength of 42.

Detailed Explanation:

The Indian government is reassessing its procurement model for acquiring 114 Multi-Role Fighter Aircraft (MRFA) in light of previous controversies surrounding the procurement of 36 Rafale fighter jets.

The Indian Air Force (IAF) is experiencing a significant shortage in squadron strength, currently at 30 squadrons, well below the sanctioned strength of 42.

Indigenous Manufacturing: The Request For Information (RFI) for the MRFA was issued in April 2019, emphasizing the requirement for license-manufacturing in India with substantial technology transfer.

Decision Timeline: Sources indicate that the government is focused on addressing the IAF’s needs and may make a decision regarding the procurement model in the coming months.

Historical Procurement: The previous tender for 126 Medium Multi-Role Combat Aircraft was scrapped after Prime Minister Modi announced a direct purchase of 36 Rafale jets in 2015, citing critical operational necessity.

Induction Status: All 36 Rafale jets have been inducted into service, with the last of these jets delivered by September 2020.

24) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Tottenham and South Korea forward Son Heung-min has been honoured as Asia’s International Player of the Year for the fourth time by the Asian Football Confederation (AFC) during its annual awards ceremony held in Seoul, South Korea.

Previous Awards: Son previously won this prestigious award in 2015, 2017, and 2019, marking him as a standout player in Asian football.

Current Recognition: He received the trophy from compatriot Kim Min-Jae, who plays for Bayern Munich, underscoring Son's continued excellence in the sport.

Detailed Explanation:

Tottenham and South Korea forward Son Heung-min has been honoured as Asia’s International Player of the Year for the fourth time by the Asian Football Confederation (AFC) during its annual awards ceremony held in Seoul, South Korea.

Previous Awards: Son previously won this prestigious award in 2015, 2017, and 2019, marking him as a standout player in Asian football.

Current Recognition: He received the trophy from compatriot Kim Min-Jae, who plays for Bayern Munich, underscoring Son's continued excellence in the sport.

Premier League Success: At 32 years old, Son is the most successful Asian player in the Premier League, having scored 123 goals and provided 64 assists since joining Tottenham nine years ago. He also achieved the Golden Boot for the 2021-22 season, becoming the first Asian player to do so.

The AFC Asian Cup final in 2015 with South Korea.

The UEFA Champions League final in 2019 and the League Cup final in 2021 with Tottenham, but unfortunately lost in all instances.

25) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Australian wicketkeeper-batter Matthew Wade announced his retirement from international cricket, concluding a notable 13-year career that saw him participate in 225 international matches for Australia.

Key Achievements: Wade played a pivotal role in Australia’s T20 World Cup victory in 2021, serving as vice-captain and delivering a memorable performance in the semi-final against Pakistan, scoring 41 runs off just 17 balls.

Detailed Explanation:

Australian wicketkeeper-batter Matthew Wade announced his retirement from international cricket, concluding a notable 13-year career that saw him participate in 225 international matches for Australia.

Key Achievements: Wade played a pivotal role in Australia’s T20 World Cup victory in 2021, serving as vice-captain and delivering a memorable performance in the semi-final against Pakistan, scoring 41 runs off just 17 balls.

Test Matches: Wade played 36 Tests, scoring 1,613 runs at an average of 29.87, which included four centuries and five fifties. His best performance was 117 runs during the 2019 Ashes series against England.

One Day Internationals (ODIs): In 97 ODIs, Wade amassed 1,867 runs with an average of 26.29, which included one century and 11 fifties.

T20 Internationals: Over 92 T20Is, he scored 1,202 runs at an average of 26.03, with a strike rate of 134.15 and a top score of 80.

26) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Spanish midfieldersRodri and Aitana Bonmatí were honoured as the world's best soccer players, receiving the men’s and women’s Ballon d’Or awards, respectively, at a ceremony in Paris, France

Detailed Explanation:

Spanish midfieldersRodri and Aitana Bonmatí were honoured as the world's best soccer players, receiving the men’s and women’s Ballon d’Or awards, respectively, at a ceremony in Paris.

Awarded the Ballon d’Or for the first time after a standout season with Manchester City, helping them win the Premier League and being instrumental in Spain’s European Championship victory.

Succeeded Lionel Messi, who previously held the title eight times.

Finished ahead of Vinícius Júnior from Real Madrid, whose club boycotted the ceremony in protest.

Bonmatí won the women’s award for the second consecutive year after leading Barcelona to victory in the Spanish league, Spanish cup, and Champions League.

Finished ahead of teammates Caroline Graham Hansen and Salma Paralluelo, marking a clean sweep for Barcelona.

27) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Indian off-spinner Deepti Sharma has achieved a career-high second place in the latest ICC Women’s ODI rankings for bowlers, moving up two spots due to her outstanding recent performances.

Detailed Explanation:

Indian off-spinner Deepti Sharma has achieved a career-high second place in the latest ICC Women’s ODI rankings for bowlers, moving up two spots due to her outstanding recent performances.

Deepti's rise follows her strong showing in the ICC Women’s T20 World Cup in the UAE and her solid contributions in the ongoing white-ball series against New Zealand.

She has taken three wickets in two matches against New Zealand, maintaining an impressive economy rate of 3.42.

Deepti is now closing in on Sophie Ecclestone, the No.1 ranked ODI bowler from England, indicating a competitive race for the top spot.

In the all-rounder category, Deepti Sharma has moved up one place to third, while Sophie Devine has improved by two spots to seventh.

28) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

In line with the directives of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), this year's Vigilance Awareness Week is being observed from October 28, 2024, to November 3, 2024, under the theme: “Culture of Integrity for Nation's Prosperity.”

Detailed Explanation:

In line with the directives of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), this year's Vigilance Awareness Week is being observed from October 28, 2024, to November 3, 2024, under the theme: “Culture of Integrity for Nation's Prosperity.”

On October 28, 2024, all public servants are required to take the Integrity Pledge as mandated by the CVC.

The Chairperson of TRAI administered this pledge to all officers and staff at the TRAI Headquarters and its Regional Offices.

29) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

The International Day to End Impunity for Crimes against Journalists (IDEI) is observed annually on November 2.

The theme for 2024 is “Safety of Journalists in Crises and Emergencies,” focusing on protecting journalists in conflict zones and crisis situations.

Detailed Explanation:

The International Day to End Impunity for Crimes against Journalists (IDEI) is observed annually on November 2.

This day, recognized by the United Nations, emphasizes the critical need to protect journalists and address the pervasive impunity for crimes committed against them.

IDEI was established by the UN General Assembly in Resolution A/RES/68/163.

The date, November 2, commemorates the assassination of two French journalists in Mali in 2013.

The resolution calls on Member States to take measures to prevent violence, ensure accountability, and bring perpetrators to justice.

The theme for 2024 is “Safety of Journalists in Crises and Emergencies,” focusing on protecting journalists in conflict zones and crisis situations.

Despite a decrease in journalist deaths in conflict zones since 2017, UNESCO reported a rise in such deaths in 2023-2024.

30) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) announced that starting early next year(2025), GST taxpayers can no longer file their monthly and annual GST returns after three years from the original filing due date.

Detailed Explanation:

The Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) announced that starting early next year(2025), GST taxpayers can no longer file their monthly and annual GST returns after three years from the original filing due date.

Time Limitation: GST outward supply returns, returns related to payment of liability, annual returns, and tax collected at source will become time-barred three years after their respective due dates.

Implementation Timeline: These changes will take effect on the GST portal from early 2025.

In light of this update, GSTN has advised taxpayers to reconcile their records and file any pending GST returns as soon as possible. This proactive approach is essential to avoid complications in the future.