Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2025 of 01st October 2025. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2025 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.

 

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1) As per the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) standardised guidelines on settlement of claims of deceased customers, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The guidelines apply to all commercial banks, co-operative banks, and Government savings schemes like SCSS and PPF.

(b) The nominee or survivor in a deposit account receives funds as the absolute owner, not as a trustee of legal heirs.

(c) In a joint deposit account, the nominee can claim funds immediately after the death of any one account holder.

(d) The nomination facility is available for deposit accounts, safe deposit lockers, and articles in safe custody under Sections 45ZA to 45ZF of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

(e) Banks must implement these procedures latest by 31st March 2027.

2) Which of the following sectoral performances under the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) for August 2025 is correctly matched?

(a) Mining sector → contracted by 7.2% in August 2025.

(b) Manufacturing sector → grew 6.0% in August 2025.

(c) Electricity output → grew 4.1% in August 2025.

(d) Consumer non-durables → grew 6.3% in August 2025.

(e) Infrastructure/construction goods → grew 4.4% in August 2025.

3) The RBI’s special clearing in the Cheque Truncation System (CTS) on 3rd October 2025 was introduced to facilitate the transition to which mechanism starting from 4th October 2025?

(a) Daily batch-wise settlement

(b) End-of-day cheque clearing

(c) Deferred net settlement

(d) Weekly cheque settlement system

(e) Continuous clearing and settlement

4) On 1st September 2025, LIC celebrated its 69th Anniversary. As per FY 2024–25 data, what was LIC’s market share in Policies?

(a) 57.05%

(b) 65.83%

(c) 54.52%

(d) 36%

(e) 69%

5) In Q1 FY26, which country became the largest source of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)equity inflows into India, contributing ₹48,104 crore?

(a) Singapore

(b) Mauritius

(c) United States

(d) Cayman Islands

(e) Cyprus

6) As per the report, India’s space sector is projected to grow five-fold to $44 billion by 2033. India aims to increase its share in the global space economy from 2% to what percentage by 2033?

(a) 8%

(b) 6%

(c) 15%

(d) 10%

(e) 12%

7) As per the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)draft proposal, NPS subscribers will be allowed to exit after how many years instead of waiting until 60 years or retirement?

(a) 10 years

(b) 12 years

(c) 25 years

(d) 20 years

(e) 15 years

8) The 8th edition of India International Tea Convention and the 132nd UPASI annual conference in 2025 will be held in which city?

(a) Bengaluru

(b) Darjeeling

(c) Kolkata

(d) Kochi

(e) Chennai

9) Who was appointed as the Deputy Governor of RBI effective 9th October 2025, while succeeding M. Rajeshwar Rao?

(a) T. Rabi Sankar

(b) Swaminathan J

(c) Shirish Chandra Murmu

(d) Poonam Gupta

(e) Muthukumar

10) Who has been appointed as the new Chairman of the Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) in 2025?

(a) Sudhanshu Vats

(b) Paritosh Joshi

(c) S. Subramanyeswar

(d) M. Rajeshwar Rao

(e) Shirish Chandra Murmu

11) Which of the following is India and Bhutan’s first-ever cross-border railway project connecting Assam to Bhutan?

(a) Banarhat–Samtse Line

(b) Tawang–Gasa Line

(c) Siliguri–Phuentsholing Line

(d) Guwahati–Thimphu Line

(e) Kokrajhar–Gelephu Line

12) On the 10th National Ayurveda Day, India’s first Integrative Oncology Research and Care Centre (IORCC) was inaugurated at_____________.

(a) AIIMS, Delhi

(b) All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA), Dhargal, Goa

(c) Tata Memorial Centre, Mumbai

(d) NIMHANS, Bengaluru

(e) PGIMER, Chandigarh

13) The World Food India 2025 summit, held in New Delhi, concluded with investment commitments exceeding_____________.

(a) ₹50,000 crore

(b) ₹75,000 crore

(c) ₹1.02 lakh crore

(d) ₹1.5 lakh crore

(e) ₹2 lakh crore

14) As per the news, India’s first Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with a European bloc, Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA), came into effect on 1st October 2025 with which countries?

(a) European Union (EU)

(b) EFTA – Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, Liechtenstein

(c) UK, Norway, Switzerland

(d) EU – Germany, France, Italy, Spain

(e) Nordic Council – Sweden, Norway, Denmark, Finland

15) Recently, the Indian Army celebrated the 199th Gunners Day on 28th September 2025, marking the raising of which unit?

(a) 1 (Kolkata) Mountain Battery

(b) 3 (Madras) Field Battery

(c) 5 (Bombay) Mountain Battery

(d) 7 (Punjab) Artillery Regiment

(e) 9 (Deccan) Artillery Battery

16) On CSIR’s Foundation Day (26th September 2025), the SODAR system developed by CSIR-AMPRI Bhopal was inaugurated at which place?

(a) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru

(b) India Meteorological Department (IMD), Delhi

(c) CSIR-National Chemical Laboratory, Pune

(d) Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi

(e) National Physical Laboratory, New Delhi

17) At the third edition of the Hanle Dark Sky Reserve (HDSR) Star Party was held from 18–23 September 2025 at Ladakh. The HDSR, India’s first International Dark Sky Reserve, is centred around which observatory?

(a) Vainu Bappu Observatory

(b) Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO)

(c) Udaipur Solar Observatory

(d) Mount Abu Observatory

(e) Kodaikanal Observatory

18) Who played a match-winning, unbeaten 69 for India in the 2025 Asia Cup final against Pakistan at the Dubai International Stadium?

(a) Virat Kohli

(b) Shreyas Iyer

(c) Rishabh Pant

(d) Shivam Dube

(e) Tilak Varma

19) Recent in news, India’s U-17 football team won their 7th SAFF U-17 Championship by defeating which team in the final?

(a) Bangladesh

(b) Nepal

(c) Sri Lanka

(d) Maldives

(e) Bhutan

20) Who won the gold medal in the Women’s Compound Open at the 2025 World Para Archery Championships?

(a) Jyoti Baliyan

(b) Sheetal Devi

(c) Deepika Kumari

(d) Oznur Cure Girdi

(e) Avani Lekhara

21) The 12th World Para Athletics Championship 2025 began at Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium (JLN), New Delhi and also serves as a qualifier for which major event?

(a) 2024 Paris Paralympics

(b) 2026 Asian Para Games

(c) 2028 Los Angeles Paralympics

(d) 2030 Commonwealth Games

(e) 2025 World Para Swimming Championships

22) The International Day of Older Persons is observed every year on_________.

(a) 15th September

(b) 2nd October

(c) 10th October

(d) 5th November

(e) 1st October

23) As per the news, the United Nations and other organizations observe World Vegetarian Day every year on__________.

(a) 1st September

(b) 1st October

(c) 15th October

(d) 2nd November

(e) 31st October

24) The world celebrates International Coffee Day every year on 1st October, and the theme for 2025 is____________________.

(a) Celebrate Coffee Culture Worldwide

(b) Embrace Collaboration For Collective Action – More Than Ever

(c) Coffee: Drink for Health and Happiness

(d) Global Coffee Sustainability

(e) Coffee Connects the World

25) In the Cheque Truncation System (CTS) under the Positive Pay System (PPS), how many images of each cheque are captured?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 5

(d) 4

(e) 3

Answers :

1) Answer: D

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued standardised guidelines for banks to settle claims of deceased customers, aiming to prevent divergent practices among banks.

The nomination facility is available for bank deposit accounts, safe deposit lockers, and articles in safe custody.

This facility is provided under Sections 45ZA to 45ZF of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, along with Section 56.

Banks must implement these procedures by 31st March 2026.

The directions apply to all commercial banks and co-operative banks.

These directions do not apply to Government savings schemes like SCSS, PPF, etc., where claims are settled as per respective scheme provisions.

If a depositor has nominated someone or the account is on “either or survivor” terms, banks can release funds to the nominee/survivor after the depositor’s death.

The nominee/survivor must be informed in writing that the funds are received only as a trustee of the legal heirs.

In a joint deposit account, the nominee can claim funds only after all account holders have passed away, irrespective of survivorship clauses

2) Answer: C

India’s industrial output grew 4.0% year-on-year in August 2025, showing expansion but uneven momentum.

Index of Industrial Production (IIP) rose 4.0% in August, slightly below the 5% forecast.

July 2025 IIP was revised upward to 4.3%, showing resilience despite weak demand and investment.

The mining sector grew 6.0% in August, rebounding from a 7.2% contraction in July.

Manufacturing grew 3.8%, slowing from 6.0% in July, indicating weaker domestic demand.

Electricity output increased 4.1%, compared to 3.7% in July.

Consumer durables grew 3.5%, showing moderate discretionary demand.

Consumer non-durables declined sharply by 6.3%, raising concerns for essential goods consumption.

Capital goods grew 4.4%, lower than 6.8% in July, reflecting weak private investment.

Infrastructure/construction goods rose strongly by 10.6%, supported by government-led capital expenditure.

Industrial output grew 2.8% during April–August FY 2025–26, a slowdown from 4.3% in the same period last year.

3) Answer: E

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced a special clearing in the Cheque Truncation System (CTS) on 3rd October 2025 to facilitate the transition to a continuous clearing and settlement mechanism starting from 4th October 2025.

Under the new system, all cheques deposited between 10 AM and 4 PM will be scanned instantly and sent to the central clearing house, instead of waiting for an end-of-day run.

The special clearing timings are a Presentation Session from 11:00 AM to 03:00 PM and a Return Session from 05:00 PM to 08:00 PM.

Banks must use clearing type “99” and session numbers “21” for presentation and “22” for return to process cheques correctly.

The RBI confirmed settlement will be processed for both sessions, and banks must maintain adequate balances in their settlement accounts.

This order was issued under Section 10(2) read with Section 18 of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 (Act 51 of 2007).

4) Answer: B

Life insurance corporation (LIC) celebrated its 69th Anniversary on 1st September 2025, marking nearly seven decades of service in life insurance and finance.

LIC is India’s leading life insurer and has emerged as the fastest-growing Indian brand with 36% growth as per Brand Finance 2025 Report.

LIC continues to hold 65.83% market share in Policies and 57.05% in First Year Premium Income in FY 2024-25.

LIC’s Assets Under Management (AUM) rose by 6.45% to ₹54.52 lakh crore.

Golden Jubilee Foundation (GJF), established in 2006, has disbursed ₹283 crore in 926 projects and 30,835 scholarships worth ₹80.62 crore so far.

5) Answer: C

In Q1 FY26, the United States became the largest source of Foreign direct investment (FDI) equity inflows into India, contributing ₹48,104 crore, a 282% increase from the previous year.

Singapore followed with ₹39,284 crore, while Mauritius fell to third place at ₹17,791 crore, reflecting tighter regulatory scrutiny and tax compliance changes in both countries.

Newer offshore hubs such as the Cayman Islands (₹5,790 crore) and Cyprus (₹9,514 crore) are gaining traction due to zero-tax regimes, flexible fund structuring, and operational efficiency.

6) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

India’s space sector is projected to grow five-fold to $44 billion by 2033, driven mainly by downstream services such as Earth Observation (EO), SatCom, and NavIC.

India’s share in the global space economy is targeted to rise from 2% to 8% by 2033, within a $1.8 trillion global market by 2035.

Detailed Explanation:

India’s space sector is projected to grow five-fold to $44 billion by 2033, driven mainly by downstream services such as Earth Observation (EO), SatCom, and NavIC.

These satellite-enabled services are applied in telecommunication, agriculture, disaster management, urban planning, and governance, boosting national resilience.

India’s share in the global space economy is targeted to rise from 2% to 8% by 2033, within a $1.8 trillion global market by 2035.

Growth is supported by ISRO, private players, nearly 200 startups, and institutional reforms like IN-SPACe, which improve procurement and asset utilisation.

India plans to strengthen defence, disaster response, and rural development through 52 dedicated ISR satellites and integration of space applications in governance.

7) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)  released a draft proposal with significant changes to the National Pension System (NPS).

Exit from NPS will be allowed after 15 years, instead of waiting until 60 years or retirement under the old rules.

The mandatory annuity purchase requirement may be reduced from 40% to 20% of the corpus for non-government NPS subscribers.

Deferral of annuity or lump sum withdrawal will be allowed up to the age of 85 years.

Detailed Explanation:

The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)  released a draft proposal with significant changes to the National Pension System (NPS).

Exit from NPS will be allowed after 15 years, instead of waiting until 60 years or retirement under the old rules.

The mandatory annuity purchase requirement may be reduced from 40% to 20% of the corpus for non-government NPS subscribers.

Deferral of annuity or lump sum withdrawal will be allowed up to the age of 85 years.

Subscribers can make up to 6 partial withdrawals, with a 4-year gap between each withdrawal.

Loans against NPS accounts will now be permitted by marking a lien, a new facility not available earlier.

Voluntary exit without annuity will be allowed if the corpus is up to ₹4 lakh (earlier ₹2.5 lakh).

Full withdrawal without annuity will be possible if the total corpus is up to ₹12 lakh.

8) Answer: D

The 8th edition of India International Tea Convention and the 132nd UPASI annual conference will be held in Kochi at Grand Hyatt from September 18–20, 2025.

The event is being organised with the support of the Tea Board of India, industry associations, and stakeholders.

A Specialty Tea Competition will be featured to showcase the diversity and craftsmanship of India’s finest teas.

9) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Government of India appointed Shirish Chandra Murmu as Deputy Governor of RBI, effective 9th October 2025, for a 3-year tenure, succeeding M. Rajeshwar Rao.

His appointment was approved by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), headed by the Prime Minister with the Home Minister as a member.

Detailed Explanation:

The Government of India appointed Shirish Chandra Murmu as Deputy Governor of RBI, effective 9th October 2025, for a 3-year tenure, succeeding M. Rajeshwar Rao.

His appointment was approved by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), headed by the Prime Minister with the Home Minister as a member.

Murmu joined RBI in 1991 and has held roles in Banking Regulation, Currency Management, and Information Technology, apart from serving as Regional Director.

He was Executive Director at RBI before being appointed Deputy Governor.

As per the RBI Act, 1934, RBI must have 4 Deputy Governors: 2 from within RBI, 1 from commercial banking, and 1 economist for monetary policy.

The current Deputy Governors are T. Rabi Sankar, Swaminathan J, Poonam Gupta, and now Shirish Chandra Murmu.

10) Answer: A

Sudhanshu Vats, Managing Director, Pidilite Industries Limited, has been appointed as the new Chairman of the Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) at its 39th Annual General Meeting (AGM).

ASCI, India’s self-regulatory body for advertising, will be completing 40 years in October 2025, making this a milestone year.

S.Subramanyeswar, Chief Strategy Officer at MullenLowe Global, has been appointed as Vice-Chairman.

Paritosh Joshi, Principal at Provocateur Advisory, was named Honorary Treasurer.

11) Answer: E

India and Bhutan have approved their first-ever cross-border railway projects—Kokrajhar–Gelephu and Banarhat–Samtse—to strengthen economic, strategic, and cultural cooperation.

Kokrajhar–Gelephu Line: 70 km, ₹3,456 crore; connects Assam’s Kokrajhar district with Gelephu in Sarpang, Bhutan; includes six stations and nearly 100 bridges. Gelephu is being developed as a “Mindfulness City”, gaining better access to Indian markets and ports.

Banarhat–Samtse Line: 20 km, ₹577 crore; connects West Bengal’s Banarhat with Samtse, Bhutan; includes two stations and ~25 bridges; supports Samtse’s industrial development.

Total Investment: ₹4,033 crore.

12) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

On the 10th National Ayurveda Day, the Ministry of Ayush inaugurated India’s first Integrative Oncology Research and Care Centre (IORCC) at the All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA), Dhargal, Goa.

The centre combines Ayurveda, Yoga, Panchakarma, and modern oncology to provide holistic cancer rehabilitation, focusing on evidence-informed, patient-centric care.

Detailed Explanation:

On the 10th National Ayurveda Day, the Ministry of Ayush inaugurated India’s first Integrative Oncology Research and Care Centre (IORCC) at the All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA), Dhargal, Goa.

The centre combines Ayurveda, Yoga, Panchakarma, and modern oncology to provide holistic cancer rehabilitation, focusing on evidence-informed, patient-centric care.

Integrative Approach: Blends traditional Ayush systems with modern oncology to reduce chemotherapy and radiation side effects, strengthen immunity, and improve quality of life.

Holistic Healing Model: Offers Ayurveda and Panchakarma for detoxification, Yoga and physiotherapy for physical and mental recovery, diet therapy for cancer patients, and modern oncology treatments including chemotherapy and surgery.

Collaborations: Partnered with ACTREC (Advanced Centre for Treatment, Research and Education in Cancer), part of the Tata Memorial Centre, ensuring therapies are guided by scientific research and safety protocols.

13) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

India’s flagship food processing summit, World Food India 2025, concluded in New Delhi with investment commitments exceeding ₹1.02 lakh crore.

Organized by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI), the four- day event attracted 26 major domestic and international companies, all signing Memoranda of Understanding (MoUs) to strengthen India’s food ecosystem.

Detailed Explanation:

India’s flagship food processing summit, World Food India 2025, concluded in New Delhi with investment commitments exceeding ₹1.02 lakh crore.

Organized by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI), the four- day event attracted 26 major domestic and international companies, all signing Memoranda of Understanding (MoUs) to strengthen India’s food ecosystem.

The event is expected to generate over 64,000 direct jobs and more than 10 lakh indirect employment opportunities.

Investment & Employment:MoUs worth ₹1.02 lakh crore, with 26 companies participating; projected 64,000 direct jobs and 10 lakh+ indirect jobs.

Sectors Covered: Dairy, meat & poultry; packaged foods & ready-to-eat products; spices, condiments & confectionery; edible oils, beverages; fruits, vegetables, and agro-processing.

14) Answer: B

India will operationalize its first Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with a European bloc as the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) with EFTA countries—Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, and Liechtenstein—comes into effect from 1st October 2025.

Announced by Union Minister Piyush Goyal, the agreement aims to boost trade, investment, and technology collaboration between India and high-income European markets.

Market Access & Tariff Benefits: Phased tariff reductions on goods, enhanced access in services, investment facilitation, and intellectual property protections.

Investment Commitment: EFTA nations will invest $100 billion over 15 years, promoting technology transfer, innovation, and skill development.

Boost to Exports: Indian sectors like pharmaceuticals, textiles, gems & jewellery, auto components, and chemicals gain preferential market access.

15) Answer: C

The Indian Army celebrated the 199th Gunners Day on 28th September 2025, marking the raising of the 5 (Bombay) Mountain Battery in 1827.

Gunners Day is celebrated annually on 28th September, as the 5 (Bombay) Mountain Battery has been in uninterrupted service since its raising.

The celebration honors the legacy, service, and sacrifices of the Regiment of Artillery, one of the most distinguished arms of the Indian Army.

16) Answer: B

On CSIR’s Foundation Day (26th September 2025), the SODAR (Sound Detection and Ranging) system developed by CSIR-AMPRI Bhopal was inaugurated at the India Meteorological Department (IMD), Delhi.

A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between CSIR-AMPRI and IMD to strengthen collaborative research in climate and environmental studies, promote data sharing, and enhance forecasting, disaster risk reduction, and meteorological research in India.

The CSIR-Advanced Materials and Processes Research Institute (AMPRI), Bhopal, formerly known as the Regional Research Laboratory, was established in May 1981 in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.

17) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The third edition of the HDSR Star Party was held from 18–23 September 2025 at the Hanle Dark Sky Reserve (HDSR), Ladakh, jointly organised by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), the Wildlife Department of UT Ladakh, and BARC.

HDSR is centred around the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO) at Hanle, managed by the IIA under the Department of Science and Technology (DST).

Detailed Explanation:

The third edition of the HDSR Star Party was held from 18–23 September 2025 at the Hanle Dark Sky Reserve (HDSR), Ladakh, jointly organised by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), the Wildlife Department of UT Ladakh, and BARC.

The Hanle Dark Sky Reserve (HDSR) was notified in December 2022 by the Government of Ladakh as India’s first International Dark Sky Reserve.

HDSR is centred around the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO) at Hanle, managed by the IIA under the Department of Science and Technology (DST).

It is located within the Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary at 4,500 metres altitude, offering Bortle-1 skies, the darkest category for stargazing.

The Star Party 2025 attracted astronomy enthusiasts from across India, who engaged in astrophotography, visual observations, and expert-led masterclasses.

A highlight was the presentation of the “7 Wonders of the HDSR Night Sky”, compiled by Ajay and Neelam Talwar.

18) Answer: E

India clinched their ninth Asia Cup title at the Dubai International Stadium, defeating Pakistan by five wickets in a match that lived up to the historic rivalry.

Chasing a modest total of 147, India recovered from a precarious 20 for 3 to reach 150 for 5, thanks to a composed 69 not out from Tilak Varma and a crucial 33-run cameo by Shivam Dube.

Tilak Varma’s Match-Winning Innings: Came in under pressure, absorbed the chase, and accelerated with 17 runs in a single over off Haris Rauf, finishing unbeaten on 69 runs.

Shivam Dube’s Crucial Cameo: Scored 33 runs with two vital sixes and contributed with the ball, bowling three economical overs.

19) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

India’s U-17 football team secured its7th SAFF U-17 Championship title in Colombo, defeating Bangladesh in a thrilling final.

The match ended 2-2 in regulation time, with India prevailing 4-1 in the penalty shootout at the Racecourse International Stadium, showcasing composure and skill under pressure.

Detailed Explanation:

India’s U-17 football team secured their 7th SAFF U-17 Championship title in Colombo, defeating Bangladesh in a thrilling final.

The match ended 2-2 in regulation time, with India prevailing 4-1 in the penalty shootout at the Racecourse International Stadium, showcasing composure and skill under pressure.

First Half: India led 2-1 at halftime with goals from DallamuonGangte and Azlaan Shah KH, while Bangladesh pulled one back before the break.

Second Half: Bangladesh equalised in the dying minutes through Ihsan Habib Riduan, sending the game to penalties.

Penalty Shootout: India converted all four penalties, while Bangladesh managed only one, demonstrating maturity and focus.

India’s Dominance: This is India’s 7th SAFF U-17/U-16 title, reflecting the strengthening youth football ecosystem and effective grassroots development programs.

20) Answer: B

India’s Sheetal Devi (18) clinched her maiden gold medal in the Women’s Compound Open at the 2025 World Para Archery Championships held in Gwangju, South Korea.

She defeated Türkiye’s Oznur Cure Girdi (three-time world champion & Paralympic gold medallist) with a score of 146–143 in the final.

This marks a historic moment for Indian para sports, as Sheetal’s victory demonstrates resilience, global competitiveness, and India’s rising stature in para-archery.

21) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The 12th World Para Athletics Championship 2025 began at Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium (JLN), New Delhi, and will continue till October 5, 2025.

The event includes 186 medal events – 101 Men’s, 84 Women’s, and 1 Mixed – across track and field disciplines.

It also serves as a qualifier for the 2028 Los Angeles Paralympics.

Detailed Explanation:

The 12th World Para Athletics Championship 2025 began at Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium (JLN), New Delhi, and will continue till October 5, 2025.

This is the first time India is hosting the championship, which features 1,000+ para-athletes from over 100 countries and a strong Indian contingent of 70+ athletes.

The event includes 186 medal events – 101 Men’s, 84 Women’s, and 1 Mixed – across track and field disciplines.

It also serves as a qualifier for the 2028 Los Angeles Paralympics.

Indian Athletes:

Deepthi Jeevanji – Reached Women’s 400m T20 medal round with a season’s best of 58.35 seconds.

Sumit Antil – Javelin Paralympic gold medallist, targeting a third consecutive gold at World Championships.

Dharambir Nain – Paris 2024 Paralympics gold medallist in club throw and India’s flag bearer.

Preeti Pal – Double Paralympics bronze medallist sprinter and flag bearer.

Praveen Kumar (high jump) and Navdeep (javelin) – Strong medal prospects.

22) Answer: E

The International Day of Older Persons is observed every year on 1st October.

According to the United Nations a person who is over 60 years old is referred to as an Older Person.

In 1990, the United Nations General Assembly adopted resolution 45/106 and declared October 1 as the International Day of Older Persons.

This day was first observed on October 1, 1991.

23) Answer: B

World Vegetarian Day is observed on the 1st of October of every year.

A person who does not eat any meat, fish, or poultry is referred to as a vegetarian. Vegetarians eat vegetables, fruits, seeds, whole grains, tofu, spinach, etc,

In 1978, the International Vegetarian Union endorsed the World Vegetarian Day.

According to the North American Vegetarian Society, World Vegetarian Day was observed in order to create some awareness about the health, humanitarian, and ethical of a vegetarian lifestyle.

24) Answer: B

International Coffee Day is observed on 1st October of every year.

The coffee originates from the Horn of Africa and South Arabia. Coffee is a beverage which is prepared from roasted coffee beans.

The theme for International Coffee Day 2025 is "Embrace Collaboration For Collective Action – More Than Ever". 

25) Answer: E

The Positive Pay System (PPS) by NPCI is an additional security measure in CTS to prevent cheque-related frauds, and banks must enable it for cheques of ₹50,000 and above, while it may be made mandatory for cheques of ₹5,00,000 and above.

In CTS, three images of each cheque are captured: front Gray Scale, front Black & White, and back Black & White, and customers should use image-friendly coloured ink to ensure clarity.

To meet legal requirements, presenting banks that truncate cheques must preserve the physical instruments for 10 years.