Daily Current Affairs Quiz - 30th July 2025

Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2025 of 30th July 2025. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2025 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.

 

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1) What is the main purpose of the Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) established by the RBI?

(a) To finance startups in fintech

(b) To encourage ATM deployment in metro cities

(c) To promote cashless transactions in malls

(d) To support digital payments infrastructure in under-served areas

(e) To provide subsidies to e-commerce platforms


2) Which of the following is not listed as a digital data source used in the new credit model?

(a) PAN authentication via NSDL

(b) Aadhar card photocopy submission

(c) GST data fetch via APIs

(d) Bank statement analysis via account aggregators

(e) ITR upload and verification


3) According to NABARD’s July 2025 survey, what percentage of rural households expect their income to increase in the next year?

(a) 56.4%

(b) 64.2%

(c) 74.7%

(d) 69.9%

(e) 82.3%


4) Which round of the Services and Infrastructure Outlook Survey (SIOS) was launched by RBI in 2025?

(a) 43rd

(b) 44th

(c) 45th

(d) 46th

(e) 47th


5) Who are the members of the oversight committee appointed by IndusInd Bank after the CEO’s
resignation?

(a) Uday Kotak and Amitabh Chaudhry

(b) Anil Rao and Soumitra Sen

(c) Sandeep Bakhshi and Rakesh Sharma

(d) Shyam Srinivasan and Amitabh Kant

(e) None of the above


6) The RBI imposed the Corrective Action Plan (CAP) on ReligareFinvest Limited (RFL) in which year?

(a) 2016

(b) 2017

(c) 2015

(d) 2019

(e) 2018


7) What is the name of the new trading plan launched by SBICAP Securities that eliminates brokerage fees?

(a) ZeroTrade

(b) TradeFree

(c) ProZero

(d) SBIFree

(e) EquityEase


8) What is the penalty amount imposed by IRDAI on Star Health and Allied Insurance Company for violating cyber security norms?

(a) ₹1.89 crore

(b) ₹2.75 crore

(c) ₹3.39 crore

(d) ₹4.00 crore

(e) ₹3.00 crore


9) What is the length of the newly inaugurated four-lane bridge over the Kollidam River?

(a) 500 meters

(b) 750 meters

(c) 1.5 kilometers

(d) 2 kilometers

(e) 1 kilometer


10) What is the name of the Brahmaputra River in the Tibetan region where the dam is being
built?

(a) Siang River

(b) YarlungZangbo

(c) Tsangpo Chu

(d) Dihang

(e) Tawang Chu


11) When was SPECS 2030 endorsed by the World Health Assembly?

(a) 2019

(b) 2020

(c) 2018

(d) 2022

(e) 2021


12) What is NTPC Green Energy Ltd’s renewable energy target by 2030?

(a) 25 GW

(b) 40 GW

(c) 50 GW

(d) 60 GW

(e) 70 GW


13) Who currently holds the additional charge as CMD of BSNL and MTNL?

(a) PK Purwar

(b) Ravi A Robert Jerard

(c) Anshu Prakash

(d) Neeraj Mittal

(e) Rajesh Khullar


14) Which Hindi author’s work has won the PEN Translates Award 2025?

(a) Namita Gokhale

(b) Geetanjali Shree

(c) Usha Priyamvada

(d) Mridula Garg

(e) Anamika


15) How many Members of Parliament were honoured with the Sansad Ratna Awards 2025?

(a) 10

(b) 12

(c) 15

(d) 17

(e) 20


16) In the proposed combination approved by the CCI, which investment trust is acquiring stakes in highway companies?

(a) India Infrastructure Trust

(b) Bharat Road Network Trust

(c) Anantam Highways Trust

(d) Ganga Expressway Trust

(e) National Highways InvIT


17) Which companies are involved as the acquirers in the proposed combination approved by the CCI involving Renault Nissan Automotive India?

(a) Renault India and Nissan India

(b) Renault Group B.V. and Renault S.A.S.

(c) Nissan Motor India and Datsun India

(d) Renault S.A.S. and Datsun Ltd.

(e) Renault Group B.V. and Nissan Overseas Investments B.V.


18) Recently, Defence Research & Development Organisation Successfully Completes Two Consecutive Flight Tests of Pralay Missile. The Pralay missile was tested from which location?

(a) Chandipur Test Range

(b) Pokhran Test Site

(c) Sriharikota Space Centre

(d) Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island

(e) Wheeler Island Airbase


19) In which country did Divya Deshmukh defeat Koneru Humpy to win the FIDE Women’s Chess World Cup?

(a) India

(b) Armenia

(c) Georgia

(d) Russia

(e) Serbia


20) How many total medals did India win at the Rhine-Ruhr 2025 FISU World University
Games?

(a) 9

(b) 10

(c) 11

(d) 12

(e) 14


21) Recently, England's thrilling triumph in the UEFA Women's Euro 2025 Final against Spain. Who is the manager of the England women’s football team as of Euro 2025?

(a) Emma Hayes

(b) Sarina Wiegman

(c) Hope Powell

(d) Casey Stoney

(e) Phil Neville


22) Which two Indian players made history in women’s singles at the Badminton Asia Junior Championships 2025?

(a) PV Sindhu and Saina Nehwal

(b) Gayatri Gopichand and Treesa Jolly

(c) Tanvi Sharma and VennalaKalagotla

(d) Ashmita Chaliha and Malvika Bansod

(e) Tasnim Mir and Unnati Hooda


23) Who defeated Pankaj Advani in the final of the IBSF World 6-Red Snooker Championship 2025?

(a) Ronnie O’Sullivan

(b) Judd Trump

(c) Ricky Walden

(d) Riley Powell

(e) Shaun Murphy


24) On which date is World Hepatitis Day observed every year?

(a) June 28

(b) July 28

(c) August 28

(d) July 18

(e) June 18


25)
World Day Against Trafficking in Persons is observed every year on 30th July to raise awareness about the plight of trafficking victims. What is the theme for 2025?

(a) Ending Human Trafficking: A Collective Responsibility

(b) Stand for Freedom: Break the Chains

(c) Unite to Fight: Dignity, Not Despair

(d) Protect Lives, End Trafficking Now

(e) Human trafficking is Organized Crime – End the Exploitation


Answers :

1) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Government is actively collaborating with key stakeholders such as Reserve Bank of India (RBI), National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), fintechs, banks, and State Governments to enhance digital payments adoption, especially in tier-2 and tier-3 cities.

The RBI established the Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) in 2021 to encourage deployment of digital payments acceptance infrastructure in tier-3 to tier-6 cities, North-Eastern States, and Jammu & Kashmir.

Detailed Explanation:

The Government is actively collaborating with key stakeholders such as Reserve Bank of India (RBI), National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), fintechs, banks, and State Governments to enhance digital payments adoption, especially in tier-2 and tier-3 cities.

The RBI established the Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) in 2021 to encourage deployment of digital payments acceptance infrastructure in tier-3 to tier-6 cities, North-Eastern States, and Jammu & Kashmir.

As of May 31, 2025, around 4.77 crore digital payment touchpoints have been deployed under PIDF.

Over the last six financial years (FY 2019-20 to FY 2024-25), more than 65,000 crore digital transactions amounting to over Rs. 12,000 lakh crore have been recorded.

The RBI Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI), launched to measure the digitization of payments, stood at 465.33 in September 2024 (base period March 2018 = 100), indicating strong growth in digital payments infrastructure, adoption, and performance.


2) Answer: B

The New Digital Credit Assessment Model for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) was announced in Union Budget 2024-25 and launched on 6th March 2025 by the Union Finance Minister.

The model mandates Public Sector Banks (PSBs) to build in-house capability for credit assessment of MSMEs, moving away from external assessment

It uses digital footprints of MSMEs for credit scoring, enabling automated loan appraisal and model-based limit assessment for both Existing to Bank (ETB) and New to Bank (NTB) borrowers.

Key digital data sources include:

PAN authentication via NSDL

Mobile and email verification through OTP

GST data fetch via APIs

Bank statement analysis via account aggregators

Income Tax Returns (ITR) upload and verification

Credit bureau data via APIs

Fraud checks through APIs

The model replaces manual underwriting based on physical documents with a fully digital application and assessment process.


3) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Over 74.7% rural households expect their incomes to increase in the next one year, according to a bi-monthly survey by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) in July 2025.

Detailed Explanation:

Over 74.7% rural households expect their incomes to increase in the next one year, according to a bi-monthly survey by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) in July 2025.

This is the highest level of rural optimism since NABARD started the Rural Economic Conditions and Sentiments Survey in September 2024.

The survey attributes this positive sentiment partly to the satisfactory progress of the southwest monsoon.

Consumption-led growth buoyancy continues with 76.6% households reporting increased consumption over the last year.

Only 3.2% households reported a decline in consumption, the lowest since the survey began.

In July 2025, 56.4% of households expect income improvement, and 56.2% expect better employment conditions in the next quarter, both reaching peak levels.


4) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has launched the 111th round of the Quarterly Industrial Outlook Survey (IOS) to assess business sentiments in the Indian manufacturing sector.

RBI has also launched the 46th round of the Services and Infrastructure Outlook Survey (SIOS).

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has launched the 111th round of the Quarterly Industrial Outlook Survey (IOS) to assess business sentiments in the Indian manufacturing sector.

The survey covers Q2:2025-26 (current quarter) and Q3:2025-26 (ensuing quarter), with insights on demand conditions, financial conditions, employment conditions, and the price situation.

RBI has also launched the 46th round of the Services and Infrastructure Outlook Survey (SIOS).

The SIOS evaluates the business situation in the services and infrastructure sectors, based on the same set of indicators for Q2:2025-26 and Q3:2025-26.

Both surveys further include an outlook for Q4:2025-26 and Q1:2026-27 on key business parameters.


5) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has extended the tenure of IndusInd Bank’s oversight committee by one month until August 28, 2025.

The committee members include Soumitra Sen (Head - Consumer Banking) and Anil Rao (Chief Administrative Officer), overseeing bank operations until the new MD and CEO takes charge or for a maximum period of three months from April 29, 2025.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has extended the tenure of IndusInd Bank’s oversight committee by one month until August 28, 2025.

The extension comes as the bank continues its search for a new Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) following the resignation of Sumant Kathpalia.

Kathpalia resigned on April 29, 2025, taking moral responsibility for accounting lapses in the bank’s derivatives portfolio, which had a financial implication of ₹1,960 crore.

The oversight committee was originally formed after Kathpalia’s resignation and was initially scheduled to serve till July 28, 2025.

The committee members include Soumitra Sen (Head - Consumer Banking) and Anil Rao (Chief Administrative Officer), overseeing bank operations until the new MD and CEO takes charge or for a maximum period of three months from April 29, 2025.


6) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has withdrawn the Corrective Action Plan (CAP) conditions imposed on ReligareFinvest Limited (RFL) with immediate effect.

The CAP was imposed by RBI in January 2018 on RFL due to regulatory concerns.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has withdrawn the Corrective Action Plan (CAP) conditions imposed on ReligareFinvest Limited (RFL) with immediate effect.

There has been a change in management and directors of ReligareFinvest.

RFL, a material wholly-owned subsidiary of Religare Enterprises Limited (REL), operates in the affordable housing finance sector.

The CAP was imposed by RBI in January 2018 on RFL due to regulatory concerns.

Recently, Religare Enterprises (REL) secured ₹1,500 crore growth capital from a group of investors led by the Burman family of Dabur, the company’s promoter group.


7) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

SBICAP Securities Limited launched ProZero, a new trading plan that eliminates brokerage fees for intraday equity and derivative trades.

The plan targets retail traders seeking cost-effective trading solutions in India's competitive brokerage market.

Detailed Explanation:

SBICAP Securities Limited launched ProZero, a new trading plan that eliminates brokerage fees for intraday equity and derivative trades.

The plan targets retail traders seeking cost-effective trading solutions in India's competitive brokerage market.

Under ProZero, traders can execute intraday trades in equities, futures, and optionswithout paying brokerage charges.

Other trading activities continue under SBI Securities’ existing flat fee structure of ₹20 per order.

The plan is available on mobile app and web platforms with no hidden fees or additional platform charges.

ProZero integrates with SBI Securities’ research and real-time trading platform ecosystem.


8) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) imposed a penalty of ₹3.39 crore and issued a warning to Star Health and Allied Insurance Company for violating information and cyber security norms.

Detailed Explanation:

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) imposed a penalty of ₹3.39 crore and issued a warning to Star Health and Allied Insurance Company for violating information and cyber security norms.

There is a rising concern over norm violations by insurers, including a high incidence of mis-selling.

To strengthen enforcement, IRDAI has formed special panels comprising whole-time members to address violations of the Insurance Act and related regulations by insurers and intermediaries.

Star Health, founded in 2006 by Venkatasamy Jagannathan and headquartered in Chennai, is India’s first standalone health insurer.

Anand Roy, appointed in May 2023, is the Managing Director & CEO of Star Health.


9) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the new terminal building at Tuticorin Airport and laid the foundation for development projects worth ₹4800 crore in Tamil Nadu, marking a significant push toward regional connectivity and infrastructure development.

Bridge and Flyover Projects:

PM inaugurated a 1-km four-lane bridge over the Kollidam River.

Also launched 4 major bridges, 7 flyovers, and multiple underpasses, significantly improving connectivity to the Delta region’s cultural and agricultural centers.

Detailed Explanation:

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the new terminal building at Tuticorin Airport and laid the foundation for development projects worth ₹4800 crore in Tamil Nadu, marking a significant push toward regional connectivity and infrastructure development.

Tuticorin Airport Terminal:

The terminal spans 17,340 sq. meters and is designed to handle 20 lakh passengers annually, enhancing aviation capacity in southern Tamil Nadu.

NH-36 Development:

4-laning of the 50 km Sethiyathope–Cholapuram stretch inaugurated, which includes three bypasses to improve highway flow and local access.

Bridge and Flyover Projects:

PM inaugurated a 1-km four-lane bridge over the Kollidam River.

Also launched 4 major bridges, 7 flyovers, and multiple underpasses, significantly improving connectivity to the Delta region’s cultural and agricultural centers.


10) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

China has officially begun constructing a massive $167.8 billion hydropower dam on the Brahmaputra River near the Indian border in Arunachal Pradesh.

The groundbreaking ceremony was attended by Premier Li Qiang.

Once completed, it will be the world’s largest dam with a generation capacity of 60,000 MWthree times the capacity of China’s Three Gorges Dam.

The dam is being built on the YarlungZangbo River (the Brahmaputra's name in Tibet), near the “Great Bend” in Tibet, just before the river enters Arunachal Pradesh as the Siang River.

Detailed Explanation:

China has officially begun constructing a massive $167.8 billion hydropower dam on the Brahmaputra River near the Indian border in Arunachal Pradesh.

The groundbreaking ceremony was attended by Premier Li Qiang.

Once completed, it will be the world’s largest dam with a generation capacity of 60,000 MWthree times the capacity of China’s Three Gorges Dam.

The project includes five cascade hydropower stations, with an estimated investment of around 1.2 trillion Yuan (~USD 167.8 billion).

The dam is being built on the YarlungZangbo River (the Brahmaputra's name in Tibet), near the “Great Bend” in Tibet, just before the river enters Arunachal Pradesh as the Siang River.

The project has raised serious concerns in India and Bangladesh about its potential impact on the river’s natural flow and downstream water availability.

The Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh described the dam as an "existential threat" and warned it could act like a "water bomb" with sudden water releases, possibly flooding the entire Siang region.

The dam was announced in 2021 and is expected to be a major hydropower project with significant geopolitical and environmental implications.


11) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The World Health Organization (WHO) has launched a global initiative called SPECS 2030 to increase access to affordable and quality eye care by raising the effective coverage of refractive error (eREC) by 40 percentage points by 2030.

The initiative was endorsed by the World Health Assembly in 2021.

Detailed Explanation:

The World Health Organization (WHO) has launched a global initiative called SPECS 2030 to increase access to affordable and quality eye care by raising the effective coverage of refractive error (eREC) by 40 percentage points by 2030.

The initiative was endorsed by the World Health Assembly in 2021.

SPECS 2030 focuses on five strategic pillars:

Services – improving access to refractive eye care services.

Personnel – building workforce capacity in eyecare.

Education – raising public awareness about eye health.

Cost – reducing the price of eyeglasses and related services.

Surveillance – strengthening data collection and research in eye care.

To support global coordination, WHO has created the Global SPECS Network, which unites intergovernmental organizations to collaborate on eyecare initiatives worldwide.


12) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The government has proposed to extend the tenure of Gurdeep Singh, Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of NTPC, by one year until 31 July 2026.

In November 2024, NTPC listed its green energy subsidiary, NTPC Green Energy Ltd, which aims to build a renewable energy portfolio of 60 GW by 2030.

Detailed Explanation:

The government has proposed to extend the tenure of Gurdeep Singh, Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of NTPC, by one year until 31 July 2026.

Gurdeep Singh was originally due to retire on July 31, 2025, but will now continue to lead India's largest power producer under the Ministry of Power till July-end 2026.

The extension comes as the Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB) was unable to find a suitable successor despite advertising the post in October 2024.

In November 2024, NTPC listed its green energy subsidiary, NTPC Green Energy Ltd, which aims to build a renewable energy portfolio of 60 GW by 2030.


13) Answer: B

The government has extended the additional charge of DoT senior official Ravi A Robert Jerard as Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of telecom PSUs BSNL and MTNL for the second time.

Jerard was appointed CMD of the telecom PSUs on July 14, 2024, after the Appointment Committee of Cabinet (ACC) denied extension to the then CMD PK Purwar.

During his tenure, Ravi Jerard has played a key role in expediting the installation of BSNL’s 4G network and finalising the tender for BharatNet Phase 3.


14) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Renowned Hindi author Geetanjali Shree, already celebrated globally for her International Booker Prize-winning novel Tomb of Sand (Ret Samadhi), has once again brought pride to Indian literature.

Detailed Explanation:

Renowned Hindi author Geetanjali Shree, already celebrated globally for her International Booker Prize-winning novel Tomb of Sand (Ret Samadhi), has once again brought pride to Indian literature.

Her latest literary work, ‘Once Elephants Lived Here’, translated into English by Daisy Rockwell, has been selected as one of the 14 titles to win the prestigious PEN Translates Award 2025, conferred by English PEN, a UK-based human rights and literary organisation.

This achievement reinforces Geetanjali Shree's position as a significant global literary voice from India and adds another milestone to the recognition of Hindi and regional language literature on international platforms.


15) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Sansad Ratna Awards 2025 were presented at Maharashtra Sadan in New Delhi, honouring 17 Members of Parliament (MPs) for their outstanding contributions in the Lok Sabha.

Detailed Explanation:

The Sansad Ratna Awards 2025 were presented at Maharashtra Sadan in New Delhi, honouring 17 Members of Parliament (MPs) for their outstanding contributions in the Lok Sabha.

Award Purpose: The Sansad Ratna Awards aim to acknowledge parliamentarians who demonstrate excellence and consistency in debates, questions, private members’ bills, and committee participation.

Notable Winners (Lok Sabha Performance):

Supriya SuleNationalist Congress Party-Sharadchandra Pawar (NCP-SP)

Ravi KishanBharatiya Janata Party (BJP)

Nishikant DubeyBJP

Arvind SawantShiv Sena–Uddhav Balasaheb Thackeray (UBT)


16) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved the proposed combination involving Anantam Highways Trust (InvIT), Alpha Alternatives Fund Advisors LLP (Alpha Alternatives)& others (Sponsor and Sponsor Group), and Dilip Buildcon (DBL)&DBL Infraventures (DIPL).

Detailed Explanation:

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved the proposed combination involving Anantam Highways Trust (InvIT), Alpha Alternatives Fund Advisors LLP (Alpha Alternatives)& others (Sponsor and Sponsor Group), and Dilip Buildcon (DBL)&DBL Infraventures (DIPL).

The Proposed Combination involves the InvIT, through its Investment Manager, acquiring from shareholders of the Target SPVs:

100% shareholding of eight highway companies:

Dodaballapur Hoskote Highways Limited

Repallewada Highways Limited

Dhrol Bhadra Highways Limited

NarenpurPurnea Highways Limited

Villuppuram Highways Limited

Bangalore Malur Highways Limited

MalurBangarpet Highways Limited

DPJ Pollachi HAM Project Private Limited

49% stake in PHL.

As consideration, shareholders of Target SPVs (Sponsor, Sponsor Group, DBL, DIPL) will be allotted units in the InvIT upon listing.

DBL Infraventures (DIPL) is a wholly owned subsidiary of DBL, together forming the DBL Group.


17) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved the proposed acquisition of certain shareholding in Renault Nissan Automotive India Private Limited by Renault Group B.V. and Renault S.A.S.

Detailed Explanation:

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved the proposed acquisition of certain shareholding in Renault Nissan Automotive India Private Limited by Renault Group B.V. and Renault S.A.S.

The acquisition involves equity shares and zero-coupon non-convertible redeemable preference shares held by Nissan Motor Company Ltd. Japan and Nissan Overseas Investments B.V. (collectively, the Sellers).

The Acquirers are Renault Group B.V. (Acquirer 1) and its nominee Renault S.A.S. (Acquirer 2), collectively referred to as the Proposed Combination.

Acquirer 1 specializes in designing, manufacturing, and marketing of passenger cars, light commercial vehicles, and electric vehicles, along with providing mobility services worldwide.


18) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted two consecutive flight-tests of the Pralay missile on July 28 & 29, 2025 from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha coast.

Detailed Explanation:

The Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted two consecutive flight-tests of the Pralay missile on July 28 & 29, 2025 from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha coast.

The tests were part of User Evaluation Trials to validate the missile’s maximum and minimum range capabilities.

Both missiles followed the intended trajectory and hit the target with pin-point accuracy, meeting all test objectives.

All subsystems performed as expected, verified by data from tracking sensors deployed by the Integrated Test Range (ITR), including ship-based instruments near the impact point.


19) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Seventeen-year-old Divya Deshmukh made history in Batumi, Georgia, by defeating India’s first woman Grandmaster and World No. 5, Koneru Humpy, in the rapid tiebreaks to win the FIDE Women’s Chess World Cup.

Detailed Explanation:

Seventeen-year-old Divya Deshmukh made history in Batumi, Georgia, by defeating India’s first woman Grandmaster and World No. 5, Koneru Humpy, in the rapid tiebreaks to win the FIDE Women’s Chess World Cup.

After two classical games ended in draws, Divya held Humpy to a solid draw in the first rapid game and, with Black in the second, capitalized on a critical endgame mistake to convert her advantage with precision, clinching the title and her Grandmaster norms.

Historic Victory & GM Title: Divya’s win made her India’s fourth female Grandmaster, joining Koneru Humpy, R. Vaishali, and Harika Dronavalli.

At 19 years old, she entered as World No. 18, overcoming odds against her senior opponent.


20) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

India wrapped up its campaign at the Rhine-Ruhr 2025 FISU World University Games in Duisburg, Germany, with a total of 12 medals, comprising:

2 Gold

5 Silver

5 Bronze

Detailed Explanation:

India wrapped up its campaign at the Rhine-Ruhr 2025 FISU World University Games in Duisburg, Germany, with a total of 12 medals, comprising:

2 Gold

5 Silver

5 Bronze

These medals were won across athletics, archery, badminton, and tennis, reflecting India’s growing depth in multiple disciplines at the university level.

Final Day Performance – 3 Medals Secured

India ended the event strongly by winning three medals on the final day.

Silver Medal – Ankita Dhyani in Women’s 3000m Steeplechase

Ankita Dhyani claimed silver in the 3,000 m steeplechase.

She finished behind Ilona Mononen of Finland, who clocked 9:31.86.

Germany’s Adia Budde secured the bronze with a time of 9:33.34.

Ankita had previously competed in the 5000 m at the Paris Olympics and switched to steeplechase in late 2024.


21) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

England's thrilling triumph in the UEFA Women's Euro 2025 Final against Spain not only secured a footballing legacy but also became the most-watched television event in the UK for the year 2025 so far.

The England women’s football team, managed by Sarina Wiegman, defended their European title by defeating Spain on penalties after a 1-1 draw in regular time.

Detailed Explanation:

England's thrilling triumph in the UEFA Women's Euro 2025 Final against Spain not only secured a footballing legacy but also became the most-watched television event in the UK for the year 2025 so far.

This iconic match captured hearts and screens across the nation, cementing its place as a moment of national pride and sporting excellence.

The England women’s football team, managed by Sarina Wiegman, defended their European title by defeating Spain on penalties after a 1-1 draw in regular time.

The final took place in Basel, Switzerland.

Chloe Kelly, the hero of Euro 2022, once again stepped up to score the decisive penalty, clinching the victory.

Goalkeeper Hannah Hampton was instrumental, making two crucial saves in the penalty shootout.


22) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The stellar performances of Tanvi Sharma and VennalaKalagotla at the Badminton Asia Junior Championships 2025 marked a historic breakthrough for Indian junior badminton.

Detailed Explanation:

The stellar performances of Tanvi Sharma and VennalaKalagotla at the Badminton Asia Junior Championships 2025 marked a historic breakthrough for Indian junior badminton.

Their achievements not only broke previous records but also signaled India’s growing strength in women’s singles badminton at the continental level.

The Badminton Asia Junior Championships is an annual U-19 level tournament featuring top young talent across Asia.

India had previously seen success in individual and team events, with players like PV Sindhu, Sameer Verma, and Lakshya Sen winning medals.

However, India had never won two women’s singles medals in the same edition—until 2025.


23) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

In a significant upset at the IBSF World 6-Red Snooker Championship 2025, 16-year-old Riley Powell from Wales defeated Indian snooker legend Pankaj Advani in a thrilling final held in Manama, Bahrain.

Detailed Explanation:

In a significant upset at the IBSF World 6-Red Snooker Championship 2025, 16-year-old Riley Powell from Wales defeated Indian snooker legend Pankaj Advani in a thrilling final held in Manama, Bahrain.

The match ended 5-4 in Powell’s favour, denying Advani a record 29th world title on his 40th birthday.

The IBSF (International Billiards and Snooker Federation) World 6-Red Championship is a prestigious global snooker tournament.

It follows a modified version of snooker, using only six red balls instead of the usual fifteen.

The 6-Red format is known for its fast-paced and attacking gameplay.

Pankaj Advani, India’s most decorated cueist, entered as a wildcard and was aiming for his 29th world title.


24) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Every year on July 28, World Hepatitis Day is observed globally to increase awareness about hepatitis, a silent yet potentially fatal liver disease.

Detailed Explanation:

Every year on July 28, World Hepatitis Day is observed globally to increase awareness about hepatitis, a silent yet potentially fatal liver disease.

The date honors the birth anniversary of Dr. Baruch Blumberg, the Nobel laureate who discovered the Hepatitis B virus and developed the first vaccine for it.

The 2025 campaign theme, “Hepatitis: Let’s Break It Down,” focuses on breaking down financial, social, and systemic barriers that hinder timely care. This effort aligns with the global target to eliminate hepatitis as a public health threat by 2030.


25) Answer: E

Every year, World Day Against Trafficking in Persons 2025 is observed on 30th July to build awareness of the anxiety of human trafficking victims and to promote and protect their rights.

THEME 2025. “Human trafficking is Organized Crime – End the Exploitation

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