Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2025 of 04th June 2025. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2025 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.

 

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1) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the RBI's 2024–25 round of the annual Foreign Liabilities and Assets (FLA) survey for Mutual Funds and Asset Management Companies (AMCs)?

(a) The FLA survey is conducted quarterly to assess mutual fund performance in domestic markets.

(b) Submission of the FLA return is optional for AMCs holding only domestic assets.

(c) Mutual funds must submit Survey Schedule-4 via post to the RBI’s Mumbai office by July 31, 2025.

(d) AMCs must submit the annual FLA return online via the FLAIR portal by July 15, 2025.

(e) The FLA survey results are confidential and not used in India’s external sector statistics.

2) As per recent developments, which of the following statements regarding the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting in June 2025 is correct?

(a) The RBI has increased the repo rate by 50 basis points in April 2025.

(b) The MPC meeting is scheduled from June 4 to June 6, 2025, and is headed by RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra.

(c) The monetary policy stance was shifted from accommodative to neutral in April 2025.

(d) SBI’s Economic Research Department expects no further rate cuts in the 2025 cycle.

(e) The current repo rate stands at 6.75% after a hike in February and April 2025.

3) As of May 31, 2025, which of the following is true regarding the status of ₹2,000 banknotes in India?

(a) ₹2,000 banknotes were introduced in April 2023 to replace ₹500 and ₹1,000 notes.

(b) RBI allowed the exchange of ₹2,000 notes at all bank branches until December 31, 2024.

(c) As of May 2025, ₹6,181 crore worth of ₹2,000 notes are still in circulation.

(d) 76.9% of the ₹2,000 banknotes have been returned to the banking system.

(e) Currency in circulation contracted in 2024–25 due to the demonetisation impact.

4) Which of the following statements regarding the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) benefits extension to Central Government NPS retirees is correct?

(a) Only retirees with less than 10 years of service are eligible for UPS benefits.

(b) The deadline to apply for UPS benefits is December 31, 2025.

(c) Monthly top-up pension under UPS is calculated based on the difference between UPS payout (with DA) and the NPS annuity.

(d) UPS benefits apply to employees retiring after March 31, 2025.

(e) Interest on arrears will be paid at fixed deposit rates set by RBI.

5) What is the maximum number of electric passenger cars that can be imported per year under the SPMEPCI scheme at concessional duty?

(a) 2,000

(b) 5,000

(c) 8,000

(d) 10,000

(e) 12,000

6) What does the DHRUVA system primarily rely on to ensure accurate and standardized addresses?

(a) Satellite TV signals

(b) Voter ID data

(c) Geo-spatial technology

(d) Mobile tower triangulation

(e) Optical fiber maps

7) What prompted increased discussions between India and Russia about anti-drone systems, in addition to the S-400 deal?

(a) Drone attacks on Indian Navy warships

(b) Drone threats observed during India-Pakistan tensions

(c) Drone strikes during the India-China border standoff

(d) The failure of existing Indian drone technology

(e) The rise in commercial drone imports in India

8) What is the total area covered by the Kumram Bheem Conservation Reserve established by the Telangana government?

(a) 1492.88 square kilometers

(b) 1200.45 square kilometers

(c) 1800.50 square kilometers

(d) 950.30 square kilometers

(e) 1650.10 square kilometres

9) Which two organizations signed the MoU to develop India’s first-ever Polar Research Vessel (PRV)?

(a) Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE), Kolkata and Norway’s Kongsberg

(b) Larsen & Toubro and Japan’s Mitsubishi Heavy Industries

(c) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders and France’s Naval Group

(d) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) and Germany’s ThyssenKrupp

(e) Cochin Shipyard and Russia’s United Shipbuilding Corporation

10) Which Japanese shipbuilding company is mentioned as planning Greenfield investments in Andhra Pradesh?

(a) Imabari Shipbuilding

(b) Mitsubishi Heavy Industries

(c) Kawasaki Shipbuilding

(d) Japan Marine United

(e) Sumitomo Heavy Industries

11) Which two naval ships visited Mumbai from 26 May to 01 June 2025?

(a) INS Shivalik and INS Kamorta

(b) INS Vikrant and INS Kolkata

(c) USS Enterprise and HMS Queen Elizabeth

(d) ESPS Reina Sofia and ITS Antonio Marceglia

(e) USS Carl Vinson and INS Arihant

12) What was S Padmanabhan’s role at Tata Chemicals before becoming Chairman?

(a) Vice Chairman

(b) Chief Financial Officer

(c) Chief Executive Officer

(d) Head of Marketing

(e) Director

13) Who has been elected as the new Chairman of the Fertiliser Association of India (FAI)?

(a) Sailesh C Mehta

(b) N Suresh Krishnan

(c) R K Singh

(d) Anil Agarwal

(e) Arvind Subramanian

14) Who are the two individuals appointed as Managing Directors of LIC effective on or after June 1, 2025?

(a) Anil Ambani and Mukesh Sharma

(b) Dinesh Pant and Ratnakar Patnaik

(c) Vivek Singh and Arun Mehta

(d) Ramesh Gupta and Kiran Desai

(e) Suresh Kumar and Rajesh Verma

15) Who won the Poland presidential election with 50.89% of the vote?

(a) Donald Tusk

(b) Karol Nawrocki

(c) Jarosław Kaczyński

(d) Andrzej Duda

(e) Mateusz Morawiecki

16) Who has had their tenure extended as Managing Director (MD) & CEO of Punjab & Sind Bank?

(a) Rakesh Sharma

(b) Swarup Kumar Saha

(c) Anil Kumar

(d) Rajesh Verma

(e) Sanjay Singh

17) Heinrich Klaasen, who recently retired from international cricket, played for which country?

(a) Australia

(b) India

(c) New Zealand

(d) England

(e) South Africa

18) Which two countries are jointly hosting the Women’s ODI World Cup 2025?

(a) India and Bangladesh

(b) Sri Lanka and Pakistan

(c) India and Sri Lanka

(d) Bangladesh and Sri Lanka

(e) India and Nepal

19) Who is the author of the book titled Indira Gandhi and the Years that Transformed India?

(a) Ramachandra Guha

(b) TCA Srinivasa Raghavan

(c) Shashi Tharoor

(d) William Dalrymple

(e) Bipin Chandra

20) On which date is the International Day of Innocent Children Victims of Aggression observed every year?

(a) June 1

(b) June 2

(c) June 3

(d) June 4

(e) June 5

Answers :

1) Answer: D

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has launched the 2024-25 round of its annual survey on Foreign Liabilities and Assets (FLA) of Mutual Funds and Asset Management Companies (AMCs).

The survey collects data on external financial liabilities and assets of mutual funds and AMCs as of end-March of the latest financial year.

Survey results are published publicly and used for the compilation of India’s external sector statistics.

AMCs must submit their annual FLA return online via the web portal:https://flair.rbi.org.in by July 15, 2025.

Mutual fund companies need to fill out Survey Schedule-4, available on the RBI website under Regulatory Reporting → List of Returns → FLA MF - Survey Schedule or under Forms → Survey.

Mutual fund companies must send the filled schedule via e-mail by July 15, 2025.

Schedule-4 is available in both Hindi and English formats, and companies can choose either.

2) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) may announce a "jumbo rate cut" of 50 basis points (bps) on June 6, 2025, during its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting to boost the credit cycle and manage uncertainties.

The MPC meeting will be held from June 4 to June 6, 2025, headed by RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra.

RBI had already reduced the repo rate by 25 bps in February and April 2025, bringing the rate to 6%.

The MPC changed its monetary policy stance from neutral to accommodative in April 2025.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) may announce a "jumbo rate cut" of 50 basis points (bps) on June 6, 2025, during its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting to boost the credit cycle and manage uncertainties.

The MPC meeting will be held from June 4 to June 6, 2025, headed by RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra.

RBI had already reduced the repo rate by 25 bps in February and April 2025, bringing the rate to 6%.

The MPC changed its monetary policy stance from neutral to accommodative in April 2025.

The State Bank of India (SBI) Economic Research Department expects a 50 bps rate cut in the June policy, which could result in a cumulative 100 bps cut over the cycle.

A large rate cut is expected to reinvigorate the credit cycle.

After the 25 bps cuts in Feb and April, many banks have reduced their repo-linked External Benchmark Lending Rates (EBLRs) by a similar amount.

Currently, 60.2% of loans are linked to EBLR, and 35.9% are linked to Marginal Cost of Funds-based Lending Rate (MCLR).

3) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Nearly two years after the withdrawal of ₹2,000 notes by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), currency worth ₹6,181 crore is still in circulation as of May 31, 2025.

On May 19, 2023, RBI announced the withdrawal of ₹2,000 banknotes, which were worth ₹3.56 lakh crore at that time.

Since the announcement, 98.26% of the ₹2,000 banknotes have been returned to the banking system.

Detailed Explanation:

Nearly two years after the withdrawal of ₹2,000 notes by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), currency worth ₹6,181 crore is still in circulation as of May 31, 2025.

On May 19, 2023, RBI announced the withdrawal of ₹2,000 banknotes, which were worth ₹3.56 lakh crore at that time.

Since the announcement, 98.26% of the ₹2,000 banknotes have been returned to the banking system.

The ₹2,000 note was first introduced in November 2016 after the demonetisation of ₹500 and ₹1,000 notes.

Currency in circulation (CIC), a major part of reserve money (76.9%), grew by 5.8% in 2024-25 compared to 4.1% in the previous year, partly due to the subsiding impact of the ₹2,000 note withdrawal.

The facility to deposit or exchange ₹2,000 notes was available at all bank branches until October 7, 2023.

Since October 9, 2023, exchange and deposit of ₹2,000 notes are possible at 19 designated RBI Issue Offices across India.

4) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Government of India has extendedUnified Pension Scheme (UPS) benefits to Central Government employees who retired under the National Pension System (NPS) with at least 10 years of service on or before March 31, 2025.

Eligible retirees or their spouses must apply by June 30, 2025 to claim the benefits.

Eligibility Criteria: Applicable to Central Government NPS retirees and their spouses with a minimum of 10 years of qualifying service, and who retired on or before March 31, 2025.

Detailed Explanation:

The Government of India has extendedUnified Pension Scheme (UPS) benefits to Central Government employees who retired under the National Pension System (NPS) with at least 10 years of service on or before March 31, 2025.

Eligible retirees or their spouses must apply by June 30, 2025 to claim the benefits.

Eligibility Criteria: Applicable to Central Government NPS retirees and their spouses with a minimum of 10 years of qualifying service, and who retired on or before March 31, 2025.

Application Deadline:June 30, 2025 is the last date to opt-in for UPS benefits.

One-Time Lump Sum: Eligible retirees will receive 1/10th of the last drawn basic pay plus dearness allowance for every six months of qualifying service.

Monthly Top-Up Pension: Provided based on the difference between the UPS payout (including DA) and the annuity received under NPS.

Arrears with Interest: Arrears, if any, will be paid with simple interest at Public Provident Fund (PPF) rates.

5) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Central Government has officially notified the operational guidelines for the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India (SPMEPCI).

Up to 8,000 EVs per year allowed at concessional duty, with rollover of unused quota to subsequent years.

Detailed Explanation:

The Central Government has officially notified the operational guidelines for the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India  (SPMEPCI).

This scheme aims to attract global electric vehicle (EV) manufacturers to invest in India by providing concessional customs duty benefits on the import of electric passenger cars and encouraging both greenfield and brownfield investments in manufacturing facilities.

The announcement coincides with Union Minister H.D. Kumaraswamy's statement that Tesla currently prefers to open showrooms in India but is not interested in manufacturing locally.

Scheme Name: Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India (SPMEPCI).

Reduced customs duty of 15% on Completely Built Units (CBUs) with a Cost Insurance Freight (CIF) value of $35,000 or more.

Concessional duty benefits are valid for 5 years from the date of application approval.

Up to 8,000 EVs per year allowed at concessional duty, with rollover of unused quota to subsequent years.

6) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Department of Posts (DoP) has introduced a comprehensive policy framework for DHRUVA, a Digital Address Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) designed to provide a unique and precise digital address for every home in India.

A DPI that creates a secure, geo-coded digital address system for homes across India.

Detailed Explanation:

The Department of Posts (DoP) has introduced a comprehensive policy framework for DHRUVA, a Digital Address Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) designed to provide a unique and precise digital address for every home in India.

This initiative aims to strengthen address management as a critical public infrastructure for improved governance and service delivery.

A DPI that creates a secure, geo-coded digital address system for homes across India.

Enables users to share accurate address information through a standardized geo-spatial framework.

Recognizes address management as essential for effective governance and enhanced user experiences.

7) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Russia is committed to delivering the remaining two units of the S-400 air defence system to India by 2025-26.

The S-400 system performed very efficiently during the recent India-Pakistan tensions.

Russia and India are considering expanding bilateral cooperation in air defence and anti-drone systems.

The growing threat of drones, especially during the India-Pakistan clash, has highlighted the need for counter-drone technologies.

Detailed Explanation:

Russia is committed to delivering the remaining two units of the S-400 air defence system to India by 2025-26.

The S-400 system performed very efficiently during the recent India-Pakistan tensions.

The contract for the remaining S-400 units is on track, with deliveries expected to meet the publicly announced timelines.

Key Highlights :

India signed a $5.43 billion deal with Russia in 2018 for five squadrons of the S-400 Triumf missile system.

So far, three squadrons have already been delivered.

The S-400 is a state-of-the-art air defence platform capable of engaging multiple aerial threats at long ranges.

Russia and India are considering expanding bilateral cooperation in air defence and anti-drone systems.

The growing threat of drones, especially during the India-Pakistan clash, has highlighted the need for counter-drone technologies.

Russia has experience in modernising anti-drone systems, which are already part of ongoing India-Russia defence dialogue.

The Deputy Chief of Mission, Roman Babushkin, mentioned a potential visit by Russian Foreign Minister Sergey Lavrov to India, expected soon (possibly this month).

The ongoing India-Russia defence partnership is seen as strategically important in the current global security environment.

8) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

The Telangana State government has established the Kumram Bheem Conservation Reserve, covering 1492.88 square kilometres, to serve as a vital wildlife corridor connecting multiple tiger reserves and sanctuaries across central India.

Detailed Explanation:

The Telangana State government has established the Kumram Bheem Conservation Reserve, covering 1492.88 square kilometres, to serve as a vital wildlife corridor connecting multiple tiger reserves and sanctuaries across central India.

Geographical Coverage: Spanning 1492.88 sq. km across Asifabad and Kagaznagar divisions, the reserve includes parts of Kerameri, Wankidi, Asifabad, Sirpur, Koutala, Bejjur, Kagaznagar, Rebbana, Dahegaon, and Tiryani mandals. It encompasses 78 reserve forest blocks, such as Garlapet, Ada, Manikgarh East, and Manikgarh West.

Tiger Connectivity: Serves as a crucial link between Kawal Tiger Reserve (Telangana) and Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve (Maharashtra), while also connecting to Kanhargaon, Tipeshwar, Chaprala, and Indravati sanctuaries.

Resident and Transient Tigers: Home to resident breeding tigers, with reports of over 45 unique transient tigers using the area over the last decade

9) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways, Shri Sarbananda Sonowal, attended the signing of a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE), Kolkata and Norway’s Kongsberg, marking the beginning of India’s indigenous development of its first-ever Polar Research Vessel (PRV).

Detailed Explanation:

Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways, Shri Sarbananda Sonowal, attended the signing of a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. (GRSE), Kolkata and Norway’s Kongsberg, marking the beginning of India’s indigenous development of its first-ever Polar Research Vessel (PRV).

Scientific and Strategic Milestone: The PRV will significantly enhance India’s capabilities in polar and ocean research, supporting critical studies related to climate change, marine ecosystems, and ocean exploration.

Partnership for Advanced Maritime Technology: Under the MoU, Kongsberg will provide design expertise, and GRSE will build the vessel, reinforcing India’s ‘Make in India’ initiative and demonstrating its shipbuilding competence in complex research platforms.

NCPOR as End-User: The vessel is being developed to meet the research requirements of the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR), further advancing India's scientific presence in polar and southern ocean realms.

India’s MAHASAGAR Vision at Global Meet: At a high-level ministerial conference on ‘Shipping & Ocean Business,’ Sonowal reaffirmed India’s “MAHASAGAR” vision (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security Across the Regions), an evolved form of the SAGAR initiative, aimed at inclusive maritime growth, security, and sustainability.

10) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways Sarbananda Sonowal held a bilateral meeting with Japan’s Vice Minister for International Affairs, Terada Yoshimichi, in Oslo, Norway, focusing on strengthening maritime ties between the two countries.

Shipbuilding and Investment Collaboration: Discussions included Greenfield investments by Japanese shipbuilders such as Imabari Shipbuilding in Andhra Pradesh. India encouraged joint ventures with Indian shipyards to boost domestic shipbuilding capacity.

Detailed Explanation:

Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways Sarbananda Sonowal held a bilateral meeting with Japan’s Vice Minister for International Affairs, Terada Yoshimichi, in Oslo, Norway, focusing on strengthening maritime ties between the two countries.

Shipbuilding and Investment Collaboration: Discussions included Greenfield investments by Japanese shipbuilders such as Imabari Shipbuilding in Andhra Pradesh. India encouraged joint ventures with Indian shipyards to boost domestic shipbuilding capacity.

Development of Smart Islands: Japan's expertise sought for transforming Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep into Smart Islands through renewable energy, digital infrastructure, and disaster-resilient systems.

Seafarer Training and Employment: India, with over 1.54 lakh trained seafarers, proposed structured programs for training and employing Indian seafarers in Japan's maritime sector, aiding Japan’s manpower needs.

11) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

ESPS Reina Sofia (commanded by Cdr Salvador Moreno Regil, Spanish Navy) and ITS Antonio Marceglia (commanded by Cdr Alberto Bartolomeo, Italian Navy) visited Mumbai from 26 May to 01 June 2025 for an operational turnaround.

Detailed Explanation:

ESPS Reina Sofia (commanded by Cdr Salvador Moreno Regil, Spanish Navy) and ITS Antonio Marceglia (commanded by Cdr Alberto Bartolomeo, Italian Navy) visited Mumbai from 26 May to 01 June 2025 for an operational turnaround.

Both ships operate under the European Union Naval Force (EUNAVFOR).

This is the first visit to India conducted under the aegis of the European Union, following discussions between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and EU President Ursula von der Leyen.

The visit reflects shared commitment to international peace and security.

Rear Admiral Davide Da Pozzo, Force Commander of Operation Atalanta (EUNAVFOR), met Rear Admiral Vidyadhar Harke VSM, Chief Staff Officer (Operations), Western Naval Command, Indian Navy.

Both sides agreed on the need for extended military cooperation and expanding avenues of cooperation between the Indian Navy and EUNAVFOR.

12) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

S Padmanabhan, PGP '82 alumnus of IIM Bangalore and recipient of the Distinguished Alumni Award (2008), has been appointed Chairman of Tata Chemicals effective 30 May 2025.

Most recently, he served as Director at Tata Chemicals before becoming Chairman.

Detailed Explanation:

S Padmanabhan, PGP '82 alumnus of IIM Bangalore and recipient of the Distinguished Alumni Award (2008), has been appointed Chairman of Tata Chemicals effective 30 May 2025.

He has been associated with the Tata Group for over four decades, holding key leadership roles across various companies within the Group.

Most recently, he served as Director at Tata Chemicals before becoming Chairman.

Padmanabhan completed his Post Graduate Programme in Management (PGP) at IIMB with a specialization in Marketing.

13) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Sailesh C Mehta, Managing Director of Deepak Fertilizers and Petrochemicals Corporation Ltd (DFPCL), has been elected as the new Chairman of the Fertiliser Association of India (FAI).

Detailed Explanation:

Sailesh C Mehta, Managing Director of Deepak Fertilizers and Petrochemicals Corporation Ltd (DFPCL), has been elected as the new Chairman of the Fertiliser Association of India (FAI).

He succeedsN Suresh Krishnan, the Managing Director of Paradeep Phosphates Ltd, who was the previous Chairman of FAI.

Sailesh Mehta has over 40 years of experience in the fertiliser and petrochemical industry.

He also served as the Chairman of FAI (Western Region) for more than 5 years.

14) Answer: B

The Government of India has decided to appoint Dinesh Pant and Ratnakar Patnaik as Managing Directors (MDs) of Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) effective on or after June 1, 2025.

Dinesh Pant is currently the Appointed Actuary & Executive Director (Actuarial) at LIC.

Ratnakar Patnaik is currently the Executive Director (Investment – Front Office) and Chief Investment Officer (CIO) at LIC.

15) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Karol Nawrocki, a nationalist opposition candidate, won Poland’s presidential election by securing 50.89% of the vote, as per election commission data.

Detailed Explanation:

Karol Nawrocki, a nationalist opposition candidate, won Poland’s presidential election by securing 50.89% of the vote, as per election commission data.

Nawrocki’s win is considered a setback for the centrist government led by PM Donald Tusk, which supports a pro-European orientation.

His victory marks a resurgence of European conservative forces, inspired by US President Donald Trump.

Nawrocki is likely to use presidential veto powers to block Tusk's liberal policy agenda, leading to potential political gridlock.

The Law and Justice (PiS) party, which lost power 18 months ago, had introduced controversial judicial reforms.

16) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Government has extended the tenure of Swarup Kumar Saha, Managing Director (MD)&Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Punjab & Sind Bank by about 21 months.

Detailed Explanation:

The Government has extended the tenure of Swarup Kumar Saha, Managing Director (MD)&Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Punjab & Sind Bank by about 21 months.

The extension goes beyond his current notified term, which was ending on June 2, 2025.

His new tenure is extended until his superannuation date — February 28, 2027, or until further orders, whichever is earlier.

This extension is as per the Bank’s regulatory filing.

Swarup Kumar Saha took charge as MD & CEO of Punjab & Sind Bank on June 3, 2022.

17) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

Veteran South African wicketkeeper-batter Heinrich Klaasen announced his retirement from international cricket, marking the end of a seven-year career that began in 2018.

Detailed Explanation:

Veteran South African wicketkeeper-batter Heinrich Klaasen announced his retirement from international cricket, marking the end of a seven-year career that began in 2018.

Renowned for his aggressive batting in white-ball formats, Klaasen had already retired from red-ball (Test) cricket in 2024.

His final appearance was in the 2025 ICC Champions Trophy semifinal against New Zealand.

18) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Women’s ODI World Cup 2025 is scheduled to take place from 30th September to 2nd November 2025, jointly hosted by India and Sri Lanka.

This will be the 13th edition of the Women’s ODI World Cup, featuring eight teams competing across five venues in the two countries.

Detailed Explanation:

The Women’s ODI World Cup 2025 is scheduled to take place from 30th September to 2nd November 2025, jointly hosted by India and Sri Lanka.

The International Cricket Council (ICC) announced the tournament schedule in Colombo.

This will be the 13th edition of the Women’s ODI World Cup, featuring eight teams competing across five venues in the two countries.

Venues:

India: Bengaluru, Guwahati, Indore, Visakhapatnam

Sri Lanka: Colombo

Participating Teams:

India, Australia, England, South Africa, New Zealand, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Pakistan

Tournament Format:

The event will showcase the eight teams in a mega tournament format.

The final match will be held on 2nd November 2025 either in Bengaluru (India) or Colombo (Sri Lanka).

19) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

A new book by TCA Srinivasa Raghavan, titled Indira Gandhi and the Years that Transformed India, offers a scholarly and neutral perspective on Indian politics during the 1970s, focusing particularly on the Emergency period (1975-77).

Detailed Explanation:

A new book by TCA Srinivasa Raghavan, titled Indira Gandhi and the Years that Transformed India, offers a scholarly and neutral perspective on Indian politics during the 1970s, focusing particularly on the Emergency period (1975-77).

Released on May 23, 2025, just before the 50th anniversary of the Emergency, the book re-examines the complex power struggles between India’s executive, legislature, and judiciary during Indira Gandhi’s tenure.

Provide an objective historian’s account of the Indira Gandhi years.

Explain the constitutional struggles among the executive, legislature, and judiciary.

20) Answer: D

On June 4^th, International Day of Innocent Children Victims of Aggression 2025 is observed all over the world as an awareness event.

Every year on June 4th, the International Day of Innocent Children Victims of Aggression acknowledges the pain that children around the world suffer.