Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2026 of  25th September 2026. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2026 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.

 

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1) Under the ₹4,850 crore Umbrella Line of Credit extended by Exim Bank to the Government of Maldives, what minimum percentage of the value of goods, works and services under eligible contracts must be supplied by sellers from India?

(a) 50%

(b) 60%

(c) 75%

(d) 80%

(e) 90%

2) According to S&P Global Ratings’ “Economic Outlook Asia-Pacific Q4 2026: Exports, Domestic Demand Will Shore Up Growth,” what is the revised GDP growth forecast for India for FY27?

(a) 6.6%

(b) 6.8%

(c) 7.1%

(d) 7.0%

(e) 7.5%

 

3) According to the Asian Development Bank (ADB), what is the revised economic growth forecast for India for FY2026-27?

(a) 6.6%

(b) 6.8%

(c) 7.0%

(d) 7.1%

(e) 7.3%

 

4) Which edition of the National Formulary of India (NFI) was launched by Anupriya Patel during the 6th National Pharmacovigilance Week programme?

(a) 5th Edition

(b) 6th Edition

(c) 4th Edition

(d) 8th Edition

(e) 7th Edition

 

5) Which state has launched the “Swamitva Adhikar Abhilekh Nispadan Evam Panjiyan Yojana 2026” to provide free registration of rural properties?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Maharashtra

(e) Chhattisgarh

 

6) Which two states are the first to have farmers receive carbon credit payments under the “Aadi” farmer carbon programme?

(a) Punjab and Haryana

(b) Punjab and Rajasthan

(c) Haryana and Uttar Pradesh

(d) Haryana and Maharashtra

(e) Punjab and Madhya Pradesh

7) Which company will invest around ₹27,000 crore to develop a Greenfield Shipbuilding Cluster at Dighi in Raigad district, Maharashtra?

(a) Cochin Shipyard Limited

(b) Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers

(c) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited

(d) Hindustan Shipyard Limited

(e) Shipping Corporation of India

 

8) Who released the latest edition of “Trade Watch Quarterly” for Q1 of FY2026-27?

(a) B. V. R. Subrahmanyam

(b) Ashok Kumar Lahiri

(c) Suman Bery

(d) Amitabh Kant

(e) Arvind Virmani

 

9) Which ministry jointly launched the nationwide Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) 2026 campaign along with the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS)?

(a) Ministry of Rural Development

(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj

(c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

(d) Ministry of Jal Shakti

(e) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

10) What is the total outlay of the GOBARdhan scheme aimed at developing India’s Compressed Biogas (CBG) sector?

(a) ₹18,731 crore

(b) ₹20,500 crore

(c) ₹22,731 crore

(d) ₹23,731 crore

(e) ₹25,000 crore

 

11) On which railway section was KAVACH Version 4.0 commissioned for the first time?

(a) Malkajgiri–Kamareddi

(b) Delhi–Ambala

(c) Mumbai–Pune

(d) Vijayawada–Guntur

(e) Secunderabad–Kazipet

 

12) From which date will the provisions of the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2026 come into force?

(a) 1 August 2026

(b) 15 September 2026

(c) 1 October 2026

(d) 15 October 2026

(e) 1 November 2026

13) According to the WMO’s State of Global Water Resources 2025 Report, approximately how much glacier ice mass was lost globally in 2025?

(a) 208 ± 132 Gt

(b) 308 ± 132 Gt

(c) 408 ± 132 Gt

(d) 508 ± 132 Gt

(e) 608 ± 132 Gt

 

14) Who was re-elected unopposed as the President of the International Cooperative Alliance (ICA) Youth Committee for the 2026–2030 term?

(a) Ana Aguirre

(b) Harsh Mukeshbhai Sanghani

(c) Sivasubramanian Raman

(d) Shashi Shekhar Vempati

(e) Ashok Kumar Lahiri

 

15) Consider the following statements regarding the 72nd National Film Awards:

1. Article 370 won the Best Feature Film award.
2. Mammootty and Kartik Aaryan jointly received the Best Actor in a Leading Role award.
3. Anant Nag received the Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2024.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Only 3

(d) All of the above

(e) None of the above

16) Recently, Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Signs Memorandum of Understanding with InD Events Dubai for Gulfood 2027. Which country will be the Official Partner Country at Gulfood 2027?

(a) India

(b) UAE

(c) Saudi Arabia

(d) Singapore

(e) Australia

17)  In how many functional Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) will Computer Lab-cum-Smart Classroom facilities be established under the MoU between NSTFDC and HPCL?

(a) 19

(b) 25

(c) 29

(d) 31

(e) 35

18) Under which initiative did the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment extend its MoU with The Art of Living?

(a) Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan (NMBA)

(b) PM-DAKSH

(c) SMILE Scheme

(d) PM-AJAY

(e) Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan

19) Which company received the ₹810.79 crore contract from the Ministry of Defence for procurement of 160 Satellite Smart Anti-Airfield Weapons (SAT-SAAW)?

(a) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

(b) Bharat Electronics Limited

(c) Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers

(d) Solar Industries India Limited

(e) Bharat Dynamics Limited

20) At what price per equity share will J&K Bank sell its 0.5% stake in PNB MetLife India Insurance Company Ltd.?

(a) ₹117.20

(b) ₹115.50

(c) ₹112.20

(d) ₹120.10

(e) ₹125.75

21) Which account is used to hold funds or assets by a third-party agent until all contractual conditions of a transaction are fulfilled?

(a) Current Account

(b) Escrow Account

(c) Suspense Account

(d) Nostro Account

(e) Settlement Account

22) Which company exited Pine Labs by selling its entire 4.31% stake through block deals on the BSE?

(a) Visa Inc.

(b) Stripe

(c) American Express

(d) PayPal Holdings

(e) Mastercard

23) How many species of flowering plants were documented in the comprehensive checklist of the Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve?

(a) 2,961

(b) 3,161

(c) 3,261

(d) 3,361

(e) 3,461

 

24) Which institute became the first NIT in India to establish a dedicated campus-based astronomical observatory?

(a) NIT Trichy

(b) NIT Rourkela

(c) NIT Srinagar

(d) NIT Warangal

(e) NIT Calicut

 

25) What is the name of India’s first indigenous long-range One-Way Attack (OWA) drone that successfully completed flight testing at Pokhran Field Firing Range?

(a) KAL

(b) Rudra

(c) Vajra

(d) Garuda

(e) Pralay

 

26) Which company commissioned a 7 GW N-type TOPCon G12R solar cell manufacturing facility at Naidupeta, Andhra Pradesh?

(a) Waaree Energies

(b) Tata Power Solar

(c) Premier Energies

(d) Adani Solar

(e) Vikram Solar

27) Consider the following statements regarding IMEI:

1. IMEI is a unique 15-digit number used to identify a mobile device on a telecom network.
2. The first 8 digits of an IMEI form the Type Allocation Code (TAC).
3. A dual-SIM mobile phone generally has two IMEI numbers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Only 3

(d) All of the above

(e) None of the above

28) In which year will India host the 11th Asian Senior Wushu Championship for the first time?

(a) 2032

(b) 2027

(c) 2029

(d) 2028

(e) 2030

29) In news, Flight Lieutenant Alfred Tyrone Cooke (Retd.), a former Indian Air Force fighter pilot, who passed away at the age of 87, was a recipient of which military decoration?

(a) Maha Vir Chakra

(b) Param Vir Chakra

(c) Kirti Chakra

(d) Shaurya Chakra

(e) Vir Chakra

30) In news, World Rose Day is observed every year on 22 September in memory of which 12-year-old Canadian girl who was diagnosed with Askin’s Tumour?

(a) Melinda Rose

(b) Amelia Rose

(c) Isabella Rose

(d) Sophia Rose

(e) Olivia Rose

 

Answers:

1) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) entered into an agreement with the Government of Maldives on 25 July 2025 to provide a Government of India-supported Line of Credit (LoC) of ₹4,850 crore (about US$506.58 million) for financing developmental projects in Maldives.

The ₹4,850 crore Umbrella LoC became effective from 27 August 2026 and will be implemented through individual project-level Credit Agreements.

Each individual Credit Agreement under the Umbrella LoC will have a minimum value of ₹500 crore, after identification and approval of the projects.

Under the LoC, at least 75% of the value of goods, works and services under eligible contracts must be supplied by sellers from India, while the remaining 25% may be procured from outside India.

Detailed Explanation:

Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) entered into an agreement with the Government of Maldives on 25 July 2025 to provide a Government of India-supported Line of Credit (LoC) of ₹4,850 crore (about US$506.58 million) for financing developmental projects in Maldives.

The ₹4,850 crore Umbrella LoC became effective from 27 August 2026 and will be implemented through individual project-level Credit Agreements.

Each individual Credit Agreement under the Umbrella LoC will have a minimum value of ₹500 crore, after identification and approval of the projects.

Under the LoC, at least 75% of the value of goods, works and services under eligible contracts must be supplied by sellers from India, while the remaining 25% may be procured from outside India.

The LoC will finance the export of eligible goods and services from India, subject to their eligibility under the Foreign Trade Policy of the Government of India and approval for financing by Exim Bank.

The last date for disbursement under the LoC will be 48 months after the scheduled completion date of the respective contract.

Shipments under the LoC must be declared in the Export Declaration Form/Shipping Bill according to the instructions issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

2) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

S&P Global Ratings, a New York-based ratings agency, released the report titled “Economic Outlook Asia-Pacific Q4 2026: Exports, Domestic Demand Will Shore Up Growth.”

S&P Global Ratings raised India’s Financial Year 2026-27 (FY27) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth forecast to 7.0% from 6.6% earlier, an increase of 40 basis points (bps).

The upgraded 7.0% FY27 GDP forecast is supported by robust industrial activity, healthy consumption, strong goods exports, and accelerating government investment.

Detailed Explanation:

S&P Global Ratings, a New York-based ratings agency, released the report titled “Economic Outlook Asia-Pacific Q4 2026: Exports, Domestic Demand Will Shore Up Growth.”

S&P Global Ratings raised India’s Financial Year 2026-27 (FY27) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth forecast to 7.0% from 6.6% earlier, an increase of 40 basis points (bps).

The upgraded 7.0% FY27 GDP forecast is supported by robust industrial activity, healthy consumption, strong goods exports, and accelerating government investment.

India’s economic growth is expected to moderate in the second half of FY27 as the boost from GST rationalisation and income-tax cuts gradually fades.

S&P Global Ratings projected India’s GDP growth at 7.2% in FY28, 7.0% in FY29, and 6.8% in FY30.

Several factors drove India’s growth to higher levels than expected in the June quarter, including robust industrial activity, healthy consumption, strong goods exports, and accelerating government investment.

 

3) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Asian Development Bank (ADB) raised India’s FY2026-27 economic growth forecast to 7%, up from 6.6% projected in July 2026, citing stronger-than-expected economic performance.

India’s GDP grew 7.8% year-on-year in Q1 FY2026-27, supported by strong investment demand, resilient consumption, and robust growth in manufacturing and services.

ADB projected India’s FY2027-28 economic growth at 7.1%, down from its earlier 7.3% forecast, mainly due to the stronger GDP base.

Domestic demand is expected to remain the main driver of India’s economic growth in the coming period.

Detailed Explanation:

Asian Development Bank (ADB) raised India’s FY2026-27 economic growth forecast to 7%, up from 6.6% projected in July 2026, citing stronger-than-expected economic performance.

India’s GDP grew 7.8% year-on-year in Q1 FY2026-27, supported by strong investment demand, resilient consumption, and robust growth in manufacturing and services.

ADB projected India’s FY2027-28 economic growth at 7.1%, down from its earlier 7.3% forecast, mainly due to the stronger GDP base.

Domestic demand is expected to remain the main driver of India’s economic growth in the coming period.

ADB lowered its FY2026-27 inflation forecast to 5%, from the earlier 5.2%, as inflation has risen more gradually than previously anticipated.

India’s FY2027-28 inflation is projected at 4%, unchanged from the July forecast, supported by moderating energy prices and recovery in agricultural supply under a normal monsoon assumption.

India’s current account deficit (CAD) is projected to increase in FY2026-27 due to higher commodity prices, before narrowing in FY2027-28 because of lower oil prices and strong export growth.

4) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

Anupriya Patel, Union Minister of State for Health and Family Welfare and Chemicals and Fertilizers, launched the 7th Edition of the National Formulary of India (NFI), the Guidance Document for Hospitals in India for Safety Monitoring and Reporting of Medical Device-Related Adverse Events, and the Adverse Drug Reaction–Pharmacovigilance Programme of India 2.0 Mobile Application for iOS users.

The initiatives were launched during the 6th National Pharmacovigilance Week programme organised by the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) at the Dr. Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi.

The 7th Edition of the National Formulary of India has also been made available digitally through NFI Online.

Detailed Explanation:

Anupriya Patel, Union Minister of State for Health and Family Welfare and Chemicals and Fertilizers, launched the 7th Edition of the National Formulary of India (NFI), the Guidance Document for Hospitals in India for Safety Monitoring and Reporting of Medical Device-Related Adverse Events, and the Adverse Drug Reaction–Pharmacovigilance Programme of India 2.0 Mobile Application for iOS users.

The initiatives were launched during the 6th National Pharmacovigilance Week programme organised by the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) at the Dr. Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi.

The 7th Edition of the National Formulary of India has also been made available digitally through NFI Online.

Anupriya Patel announced that the Biovigilance Programme of India has been approved by the Government of India.

The 6th National Pharmacovigilance Week is being observed from 17 to 23 September 2026 with the theme “Promoting Rational Use of Medicines through Pharmacovigilance: A Step Towards Safer Healthcare.”

Anupriya Patel emphasised that rational use of medicines and continuous safety monitoring are essential for public health. She stated that every patient should receive the right medicine, of assured quality, in the right manner and with the highest possible degree of safety.

India has developed a strong indigenous pharmacovigilance ecosystem for generating, collecting, processing and analysing medicine-safety data from across the country.

 

5) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Madhya Pradesh has launched a free rural property registration drive targeting around 50 lakhs privately held rural properties under the Swamitva Adhikar Abhilekh Nispadan Evam Panjiyan Yojana 2026.

The initiative was launched in Indore as part of the state government’s Seva Sankalp Abhiyan.

The Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh stated that the state has become the first state to offer free registration of rural properties.

The registration drive aims to provide eligible rural property holders with formal ownership-related records without the usual registration cost being borne by the beneficiaries.

Detailed Explanation:

Madhya Pradesh has launched a free rural property registration drive targeting around 50 lakhs privately held rural properties under the Swamitva Adhikar Abhilekh Nispadan Evam Panjiyan Yojana 2026.

The initiative was launched in Indore as part of the state government’s Seva Sankalp Abhiyan.

The Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh stated that the state has become the first state to offer free registration of rural properties.

The registration drive aims to provide eligible rural property holders with formal ownership-related records without the usual registration cost being borne by the beneficiaries.

The initiative will cover more than 23,000 villages, with revenue officials and Patwaris facilitating the registration process at the local level.

The wider survey has covered around 68 lakh rural properties, while the present free-registration initiative specifically focuses on around 50 lakh privately held properties.

The initiative is intended to provide rural families with clearer documentary records of property rights and make formal ownership documentation more accessible.

The Seva Sankalp Abhiyan is being conducted across Madhya Pradesh from 17 September to 17 October 2026 as a month-long public-service and outreach campaign.

6) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

The Government will provide ₹2.9 crore to 2,550 farmers in Punjab and Haryana who adopted regenerative farming practices and earned carbon credits for the first time.

Dr. M. L. Jat, Secretary, Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE) and Director General, Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), initiated the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) of the carbon credit payments to the selected farmers.

The carbon payments provide an economic incentive for adopting farming practices that also generate environmental benefits.

The selected farmers adopted practices such as Direct Seeded Rice (DSR), reduced tillage and crop residue management during 2019–2022.

These practices helped reduce greenhouse gas emissions and increase soil carbon. The eligibility of farmers for carbon credits was independently verified before the credits were issued.

Detailed Explanation:

The Government will provide ₹2.9 crore to 2,550 farmers in Punjab and Haryana who adopted regenerative farming practices and earned carbon credits for the first time.

Dr. M. L. Jat, Secretary, Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE) and Director General, Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), initiated the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) of the carbon credit payments to the selected farmers.

The carbon payments provide an economic incentive for adopting farming practices that also generate environmental benefits.

The selected farmers adopted practices such as Direct Seeded Rice (DSR), reduced tillage and crop residue management during 2019–2022.

These practices helped reduce greenhouse gas emissions and increase soil carbon. The eligibility of farmers for carbon credits was independently verified before the credits were issued.

The payments are being made under “Aadi”, a farmer carbon programme launched by Grow Indigo in 2019, with technical guidance from the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.

The programme covers more than 2 million acres and involves over 1 lakh farmers across 7 states.

Agricultural carbon credits under the programme are issued according to the Verra VM0042 methodology.

Direct Seeded Rice reduces irrigation requirements compared with conventional rice transplanting, while improved crop residue management can help reduce stubble burning and related air pollution.

 

7) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) will invest around ₹27,000 crore to develop a Greenfield Shipbuilding Cluster at Dighi in Raigad district, Maharashtra.

The project is expected to create around 90,000 jobs and significantly expand India’s shipbuilding capacity.

Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with National Shipbuilding and Heavy Industries Park Maharashtra Limited (NSHIPML) for development of the facility.

The proposed shipbuilding cluster will have an annual shipbuilding capacity of at least 2 million gross tonnes.

Detailed Explanation:

Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) will invest around ₹27,000 crore to develop a Greenfield Shipbuilding Cluster at Dighi in Raigad district, Maharashtra.

The project is expected to create around 90,000 jobs and significantly expand India’s shipbuilding capacity.

Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with National Shipbuilding and Heavy Industries Park Maharashtra Limited (NSHIPML) for development of the facility.

The proposed shipbuilding cluster will have an annual shipbuilding capacity of at least 2 million gross tonnes.

The facility will support the construction of large commercial vessels and include modern shipbuilding infrastructure along with an industrial and supply-chain ecosystem for the maritime sector.

The project is being jointly developed by the Maharashtra Maritime Board and the Mumbai Port Authority through National Shipbuilding and Heavy Industries Park Maharashtra Limited, a special-purpose company established for the initiative.

The facility is being developed under the Central Government’s Greenfield Shipbuilding Cluster Development Plan and is aligned with the objectives of Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047.

The Maharashtra Government expects the project to attract technology and investment, generate skilled employment and strengthen India’s competitiveness in the global maritime industry.

8) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Ashok Kumar Lahiri, Vice-Chairman, NITI Aayog, released the latest edition of “Trade Watch Quarterly” for Quarter 1 of Financial Year 2026-27 (April–June 2026) in New Delhi, in the presence of the Chief Executive Officer and senior officials of NITI Aayog.

The latest edition provides an assessment of global and domestic trade trends amid heightened geopolitical and trade policy uncertainties, while global trade continued to remain resilient.

Global goods trade reached USD 13.7 trillion during the first half of calendar year 2026, registering 12.5% year-on-year growth, while services trade grew by 10.5%.

Detailed Explanation:

Ashok Kumar Lahiri, Vice-Chairman, NITI Aayog, released the latest edition of “Trade Watch Quarterly” for Quarter 1 of Financial Year 2026-27 (April–June 2026) in New Delhi, in the presence of the Chief Executive Officer and senior officials of NITI Aayog.

The latest edition provides an assessment of global and domestic trade trends amid heightened geopolitical and trade policy uncertainties, while global trade continued to remain resilient.

Global goods trade reached USD 13.7 trillion during the first half of calendar year 2026, registering 12.5% year-on-year growth, while services trade grew by 10.5%.

Against this global backdrop, India’s merchandise and services trade continued to expand, with total trade reaching USD 506.9 billion in Quarter 1 of Financial Year 2026-27, registering 15.5% year-on-year growth.

The thematic focus of the edition is India’s Metals and Ores Trade, a strategically important sector for manufacturing, infrastructure, energy transition and advanced industries.

India’s merchandise exports recorded strong growth in Quarter 1 of Financial Year 2026-27, led by mineral fuels, electrical machinery, nuclear reactors, iron and steel, and vehicles. The growth was supported by higher shipments of petroleum products, steel, engineering goods and automobiles.

India’s export destinations continued to diversify, with Tanzania and South Africa emerging among the top 10 export markets, along with strong growth in exports to Singapore.

9) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) and the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS) jointly launched the nationwide Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) 2026 campaign at Children’s Park, India Gate, New Delhi.

The campaign was launched with a plantation drive under the initiative ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam’.

The event was organised following a Whole of Government approach and jointly conducted with the New Delhi Municipal Council.

Every year, Swachhata Hi Seva brings together citizens, institutions and leadership across India to promote voluntarism and collective action for cleanliness.

Detailed Explanation:

The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) and the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS) jointly launched the nationwide Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) 2026 campaign at Children’s Park, India Gate, New Delhi.

The campaign was launched with a plantation drive under the initiative ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam’.

The event was organised following a Whole of Government approach and jointly conducted with the New Delhi Municipal Council.

Every year, Swachhata Hi Seva brings together citizens, institutions and leadership across India to promote voluntarism and collective action for cleanliness.

The theme of Swachhata Hi Seva 2026 is “Swachhata Mein Sahbhag; Swachh Bharat, Viksit Bharat”.

The campaign highlights that cleanliness is a shared responsibility and that the vision of a Swachh and Viksit Bharat can be achieved through a Whole of Government and Whole of Society approach.

States, Union Territories and citizens across the country have begun participating in the campaign with full vigour, reflecting their collective commitment towards Swachh Bharat.

10) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas has issued operational guidelines for all six components of GOBARdhan (Galvanising Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan), a ₹23,731 crore scheme aimed at developing India's Compressed Biogas (CBG) sector.

GOBARdhan was approved on 6 August 2026 and will cover the period from 2026-27 to 2035-36.

The six components of GOBARdhan are:

CBG Offtake Assurance Mechanism

CBG Pricing Framework

Capital Assistance

Development of Pipeline Infrastructure

Credit Guarantee Support

CBG Ecosystem Challenge Fund

Under the CBG pricing framework, producers will receive an Administered CBG Price (ACP) of ₹2,110 per Million British Thermal Units (MMBTU), equivalent to around ₹98 per kg of CBG at 95% methane content. Taxes and compression charges are excluded.

Detailed Explanation:

The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas has issued operational guidelines for all six components of GOBARdhan (Galvanising Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan), a ₹23,731 crore scheme aimed at developing India's Compressed Biogas (CBG) sector.

GOBARdhan was approved on 6 August 2026 and will cover the period from 2026-27 to 2035-36.

The six components of GOBARdhan are:

CBG Offtake Assurance Mechanism

CBG Pricing Framework

Capital Assistance

Development of Pipeline Infrastructure

Credit Guarantee Support

CBG Ecosystem Challenge Fund

Under the CBG pricing framework, producers will receive an Administered CBG Price (ACP) of ₹2,110 per Million British Thermal Units (MMBTU), equivalent to around ₹98 per kg of CBG at 95% methane content. Taxes and compression charges are excluded.

GAIL (India) Limited, designated as the Synchro Operator, will make payments to CBG producers under the ACP framework.

The ACP will remain applicable at least until 31 March 2036. A Project Approval Board, chaired by the Secretary, Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, will review the price every 12 months and may retain or revise it based on production economics, Consumer Price Index and other relevant factors.

The Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell will notify the ACP.

The government will provide affordability support to GAIL (India) Limited, capped at ₹10 per kg or ₹215.31 per MMBTU of CBG procured.

 

11) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Indian Railways has commissioned KAVACH Version 4.0 for the first time on South Central Railway, marking a significant advancement in indigenous railway safety and Automatic Train Protection technology.

KAVACH Version 4.0 has been successfully commissioned for the first time on South Central Railway, with the upgradation from KAVACH Version 3.2 to Version 4.0 completed over 108 Route Kilometres on the Malkajgiri–Kamareddi section of Hyderabad Division.

Detailed Explanation:

Indian Railways has commissioned KAVACH Version 4.0 for the first time on South Central Railway, marking a significant advancement in indigenous railway safety and Automatic Train Protection technology.

KAVACH Version 4.0 has been successfully commissioned for the first time on South Central Railway, with the upgradation from KAVACH Version 3.2 to Version 4.0 completed over 108 Route Kilometres on the Malkajgiri–Kamareddi section of Hyderabad Division.

The latest version incorporates technological improvements based on the experience gained from deploying KAVACH Version 3.2 over 1,465 Route Kilometres on South Central Railway.

KAVACH Version 4.0 provides enhanced safety, advanced technology, higher reliability and safer train operations and is planned for large-scale deployment across Indian Railways.

KAVACH Version 4.0 has been developed, tested and deployed by Indian Railways as an Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system, with improvements designed to meet the diverse operational and technological requirements of the Indian railway network.

KAVACH is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection system designed to enhance operational safety. It assists the Loco Pilot in maintaining trains within prescribed speed limits and can automatically apply brakes when required if the Loco Pilot fails to take appropriate action.

KAVACH helps prevent Signal Passing at Danger (SPAD), controls train speed in critical situations and reduces the risk of train collisions.

The system also supports safer train operations during inclement weather conditions.

 

12) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Registrar General of India Mrityunjay Kumar Narayan announced that the provisions of the newly enacted Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2026 will come into force on 1 October 2026.

The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026 was passed by both Houses of Parliament and became law after receiving the President’s assent in August 2026.

The main objective of the Act is to reduce delays in the registration of births and deaths and encourage people to complete registration within the prescribed period.

Detailed Explanation:

Registrar General of India Mrityunjay Kumar Narayan announced that the provisions of the newly enacted Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2026 will come into force on 1 October 2026.

The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026 was passed by both Houses of Parliament and became law after receiving the President’s assent in August 2026.

The main objective of the Act is to reduce delays in the registration of births and deaths and encourage people to complete registration within the prescribed period.

When a birth or death is reported to the Registrar after one year but within two years, registration will require approval from the District Magistrate, Sub-Divisional Magistrate, or Executive Magistrate.

When a birth or death is reported after two years, it can be registered only on the order of a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class.

The Act also requires the designated authority to verify the authenticity of the reported birth or death before granting approval for delayed registration.

Registration of births and deaths is mandatory, and the certificate issued through the registration process serves as legal identity of an individual.

13) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) released the State of Global Water Resources 2025 Report, providing a science-based assessment of global water resources, hydrological variability, trends, and extreme events.

The report covers 2025 and summarizes key findings from the past five years (2021–2025).

2025 was one of the driest years for global river discharge in more than three decades, with below-normal flows across 36% of the global basin area.

For the seventh consecutive year, river basins with “normal” conditions remained in a clear minority, ranging between 34% and 38%, compared with an average of 46% during 1991–2020.

Terrestrial water storage has shown a persistent decline since 2014–2016, indicating a long-term reduction in water stored in groundwater, lakes, rivers, soil moisture, vegetation, ice, and snow.

2025 marked the fourth consecutive year in which every major glaciated region recorded a net loss in glacier mass.

Global glaciers lost approximately 408 ± 132 gigatonnes (Gt) of ice mass in 2025, equivalent to 1.1 ± 0.4 mm of sea-level rise.

Detailed Explanation:

The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) released the State of Global Water Resources 2025 Report, providing a science-based assessment of global water resources, hydrological variability, trends, and extreme events.

The report covers 2025 and summarizes key findings from the past five years (2021–2025).

2025 was one of the driest years for global river discharge in more than three decades, with below-normal flows across 36% of the global basin area.

For the seventh consecutive year, river basins with “normal” conditions remained in a clear minority, ranging between 34% and 38%, compared with an average of 46% during 1991–2020.

Terrestrial water storage has shown a persistent decline since 2014–2016, indicating a long-term reduction in water stored in groundwater, lakes, rivers, soil moisture, vegetation, ice, and snow.

2025 marked the fourth consecutive year in which every major glaciated region recorded a net loss in glacier mass.

Global glaciers lost approximately 408 ± 132 gigatonnes (Gt) of ice mass in 2025, equivalent to 1.1 ± 0.4 mm of sea-level rise.

Between 2023 and 2025, cumulative global glacier mass loss reached approximately 1,400 gigatonnes of water, equivalent to about 560 million Olympic-sized swimming pools or around one-third of annual global freshwater withdrawals.

Mountain glaciers lost about 6.2% of their total ice mass between 2000 and 2025, with some regions recording declines of up to 40% over past decades.

Six of the seven largest annual glacier mass losses have occurred during the last seven years, highlighting the continuing impact of climate change.

Regions including Central Asia, South Asia West, Russian Arctic, Iceland, Western Canada, and the USA recorded annual glacier mass balances among their three most negative years on record.

14) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) released the State of Global Water Resources 2025 Report, providing a science-based assessment of global water resources, hydrological variability, trends, and extreme events.

The report covers 2025 and summarizes key findings from the past five years (2021–2025).

2025 was one of the driest years for global river discharge in more than three decades, with below-normal flows across 36% of the global basin area.

For the seventh consecutive year, river basins with “normal” conditions remained in a clear minority, ranging between 34% and 38%, compared with an average of 46% during 1991–2020.

Terrestrial water storage has shown a persistent decline since 2014–2016, indicating a long-term reduction in water stored in groundwater, lakes, rivers, soil moisture, vegetation, ice, and snow.

2025 marked the fourth consecutive year in which every major glaciated region recorded a net loss in glacier mass.

Global glaciers lost approximately 408 ± 132 gigatonnes (Gt) of ice mass in 2025, equivalent to 1.1 ± 0.4 mm of sea-level rise.

Detailed Explanation:

The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) released the State of Global Water Resources 2025 Report, providing a science-based assessment of global water resources, hydrological variability, trends, and extreme events.

The report covers 2025 and summarizes key findings from the past five years (2021–2025).

2025 was one of the driest years for global river discharge in more than three decades, with below-normal flows across 36% of the global basin area.

For the seventh consecutive year, river basins with “normal” conditions remained in a clear minority, ranging between 34% and 38%, compared with an average of 46% during 1991–2020.

Terrestrial water storage has shown a persistent decline since 2014–2016, indicating a long-term reduction in water stored in groundwater, lakes, rivers, soil moisture, vegetation, ice, and snow.

2025 marked the fourth consecutive year in which every major glaciated region recorded a net loss in glacier mass.

Global glaciers lost approximately 408 ± 132 gigatonnes (Gt) of ice mass in 2025, equivalent to 1.1 ± 0.4 mm of sea-level rise.

Between 2023 and 2025, cumulative global glacier mass loss reached approximately 1,400 gigatonnes of water, equivalent to about 560 million Olympic-sized swimming pools or around one-third of annual global freshwater withdrawals.

Mountain glaciers lost about 6.2% of their total ice mass between 2000 and 2025, with some regions recording declines of up to 40% over past decades.

Six of the seven largest annual glacier mass losses have occurred during the last seven years, highlighting the continuing impact of climate change.

Regions including Central Asia, South Asia West, Russian Arctic, Iceland, Western Canada, and the USA recorded annual glacier mass balances among their three most negative years on record.

15) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The 72nd National Film Awards for the year 2024 were announced the awards were presented by President of India Droupadi Murmu at Ekta Nagar, Kevadia, Gujarat.

The awards recognise excellence in Indian cinema across Feature Films, Non-Feature Films and Writing on Cinema.

Article 370 won the Best Feature Film award, while Bhangaar was named Best Non-Feature Film and Ram-Nami won the Best Documentary award.

Mammootty for Bramayugam and Kartik Aaryan for Chandu Champion jointly received the Best Actor in a Leading Role award, while Yami Gautam won the Best Actress in a Leading Role award for Article 370.

Randeep Hooda won the Best Debut Film of a Director award for Swatantrya Veer Savarkar.

Anant Nag received the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2024 for his distinguished contribution to theatre and Indian cinema.

Detailed Explanation:

The 72nd National Film Awards for the year 2024 were announced the awards were presented by President of India Droupadi Murmu at Ekta Nagar, Kevadia, Gujarat.

The awards recognise excellence in Indian cinema across Feature Films, Non-Feature Films and Writing on Cinema.

Article 370 won the Best Feature Film award, while Bhangaar was named Best Non-Feature Film and Ram-Nami won the Best Documentary award.

Mammootty for Bramayugam and Kartik Aaryan for Chandu Champion jointly received the Best Actor in a Leading Role award, while Yami Gautam won the Best Actress in a Leading Role award for Article 370.

Randeep Hooda won the Best Debut Film of a Director award for Swatantrya Veer Savarkar.

Anant Nag received the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2024 for his distinguished contribution to theatre and Indian cinema.

He also recalled receiving the Padma Bhushan from the President in 2025 and expressed gratitude for receiving the Dadasaheb Phalke Award from the President again in 2026.

Gujarat Governor Acharya Devvrat welcomed the National Film Awards to Gujarat and appreciated the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting for beginning the tradition of holding the ceremony outside Delhi.

The ceremony was held at Ekta Nagar, Kevadia, associated with the legacy of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

 

16) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) and InD Events Dubai signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi, in the presence of Rajesh Agrawal, Commerce Secretary.

India will be the Official Partner Country at Gulfood 2027, marking the second consecutive year of the partnership after Gulfood 2026.

Gulfood 2027 will be held from 15 to 19 March 2027 in the United Arab Emirates and is one of the world’s leading food and beverage trade exhibitions.

The partnership will provide Indian exporters with an expanded platform to connect with international buyers, strengthen market access and deepen India–United Arab Emirates trade engagement under the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA).

Detailed Explanation:

Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) and InD Events Dubai signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi, in the presence of Rajesh Agrawal, Commerce Secretary.

India will be the Official Partner Country at Gulfood 2027, marking the second consecutive year of the partnership after Gulfood 2026.

Gulfood 2027 will be held from 15 to 19 March 2027 in the United Arab Emirates and is one of the world’s leading food and beverage trade exhibitions.

The partnership will provide Indian exporters with an expanded platform to connect with international buyers, strengthen market access and deepen India–United Arab Emirates trade engagement under the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA).

The collaboration will promote India’s agricultural and processed food products globally and strengthen India’s position as a reliable and diversified supplier.

India’s participation will showcase premium, branded, innovative and value-added food products, along with established commodity strengths, through a unified national platform.

The platform will bring together exporters, Farmer Producer Organisations, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, startups, commodity boards and government institutions.

17) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation (NSTFDC) and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to establish integrated Computer Lab-cum-Smart Classroom facilities in 29 functional Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) across 11 districts of Rajasthan.

The initiative aims to strengthen technology-enabled education for tribal students by improving access to digital learning resources and supporting competitive examination preparation.

Detailed Explanation:

The National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation (NSTFDC) and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to establish integrated Computer Lab-cum-Smart Classroom facilities in 29 functional Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) across 11 districts of Rajasthan.

The initiative aims to strengthen technology-enabled education for tribal students by improving access to digital learning resources and supporting competitive examination preparation.

The MoU was signed in the presence of Ranjana Chopra, Secretary, Ministry of Tribal Affairs; T. Roumuan Paite, Joint Secretary, Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Chairman and Managing Director, National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation; Ganesh Nagarajan, Deputy Secretary, Ministry of Tribal Affairs; and other senior officials.

The HPCL delegation included K. S. Shetty, Director (Human Resources); Pawan Kumar Sehgal, Chief General Manager, DCO; Anupam Tiwari, Chief General Manager, Corporate Social Responsibility and Public Relations & Corporate Communications; Bhargav Chauhan, Manager, Corporate Social Responsibility; and Sakshi Dwivedi, Officer, Corporate Social Responsibility.

The National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation was represented by Bismita Das, Assistant General Manager, Projects and Corporate Social Responsibility; Himanshu Vishwakarma, Chief Manager; and Vikash Ranjan, Manager, Projects and Corporate Social Responsibility.

 

19) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India, extended its Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with The Art of Living, a non-profit spiritual, educational and humanitarian organisation, under the Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan (NMBA).

The MoU was signed at the office of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment in New Delhi.

The signing ceremony was attended by Dr. Virendra Kumar, Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment; Sudhansh Pant, Secretary, Department of Social Justice and Empowerment; Dr. Sandeep R. Rathod, Joint Secretary; senior Ministry officials; and representatives of The Art of Living.

Detailed Explanation:

The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India, extended its Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with The Art of Living, a non-profit spiritual, educational and humanitarian organisation, under the Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan (NMBA).

The MoU was signed at the office of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment in New Delhi.

The signing ceremony was attended by Dr. Virendra Kumar, Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment; Sudhansh Pant, Secretary, Department of Social Justice and Empowerment; Dr. Sandeep R. Rathod, Joint Secretary; senior Ministry officials; and representatives of The Art of Living.

Astik Kumar Pandey, Director (Drug Prevention), signed the MoU on behalf of the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, while Pankaj Narula, Trustee and authorised signatory, signed on behalf of The Art of Living.

Shabnam Awasthi, State Apex Member, and Vinay Sharma, Volunteer of The Art of Living, attended the ceremony as witnesses.

Through the renewed partnership, the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment and The Art of Living will continue working towards the vision of a Nasha Mukt Bharat by promoting a Whole-of-Society and Whole-of-Government approach to prevent substance abuse.

 

19) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The Ministry of Defence (MoD) signed a ₹810.79 crore contract with Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) to procure 160 Satellite Smart Anti-Airfield Weapons (SAT-SAAW) along with associated equipment for the Indian Air Force (IAF).

The contract was signed in New Delhi in the presence of Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh.

The procurement comes under the Buy (Indian–Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured) category, supporting Aatmanirbharta (self-reliance) in defence production.

Detailed Explanation:

The Ministry of Defence (MoD) signed a ₹810.79 crore contract with Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) to procure 160 Satellite Smart Anti-Airfield Weapons (SAT-SAAW) along with associated equipment for the Indian Air Force (IAF).

The contract was signed in New Delhi in the presence of Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh.

The procurement comes under the Buy (Indian–Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured) category, supporting Aatmanirbharta (self-reliance) in defence production.

SAT-SAAW is an air-to-ground precision-guided glide bomb designed and developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

SAT-SAAW is designed to strike and neutralise enemy airfields from a long stand-off range, thereby enhancing the IAF’s stand-off precision strike capability.

The weapon can be launched from fighter aircraft platforms including Jaguar, Hawk and Su-30MKI.

The SAT-SAAW system will have 60% indigenous content, with further indigenisation planned for critical subsystems.

20) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Jammu and Kashmir Bank (J&K Bank) signed an escrow agreement with MetLife International Holdings, LLC and Barclays Group entities on 21 September 2026 for the sale of its stake in PNB MetLife India Insurance Company Ltd.

J&K Bank will sell its 0.5% stake in PNB MetLife India Insurance for approximately ₹120.10 crore.

The shares will be sold at ₹117.20 per equity share, with the transaction involving the deposit and transfer of equity shares and purchase consideration through an independent escrow arrangement.

Detailed Explanation:

Jammu and Kashmir Bank (J&K Bank) signed an escrow agreement with MetLife International Holdings, LLC and Barclays Group entities on 21 September 2026 for the sale of its stake in PNB MetLife India Insurance Company Ltd.

J&K Bank will sell its 0.5% stake in PNB MetLife India Insurance for approximately ₹120.10 crore.

The shares will be sold at ₹117.20 per equity share, with the transaction involving the deposit and transfer of equity shares and purchase consideration through an independent escrow arrangement.

After the transaction, J&K Bank’s overall stake in PNB MetLife India Insurance will reduce from 3.03% to approximately 2.53%.

MetLife International Holdings, LLC is the buyer of J&K Bank’s 0.5% stake under the transaction.

J&K Bank and MetLife International Holdings had entered into a Share Purchase Agreement (SPA) on 17 July 2026 for the acquisition of the 0.5% stake.

Under the escrow arrangement, Barclays Wealth Trustees (India) Private Ltd will act as the Share Escrow Agent for the transfer of equity shares.

Barclays Bank PLC will act as the Cash Escrow Agent for handling the purchase consideration.

No special rights have been assigned to either of the escrow agents under the agreement.

21) Answer: B

Escrow Account is a temporary, neutral account managed by a third-party escrow agent.

The escrow agent holds funds or assets on behalf of two parties involved in a transaction.

Funds or assets are released only after all contractual conditions are met.

An escrow account provides security and neutrality during a transaction.

22) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

Mastercard Incorporated, a USA-based multinational payments company, exited Pine Labs by selling its entire 4.31% stake through block deals on the BSE.

Mastercard Asia/Pacific Pte Ltd sold 4,97,24,182 shares of Pine Labs in 13 tranches.

The shares were sold at an average price of ₹187.75 per share, with an aggregate deal value of approximately ₹933.57 crore.

The transaction represented a 4.31% stake in Noida-based Pine Labs.

Detailed Explanation:

Mastercard Incorporated, a USA-based multinational payments company, exited Pine Labs by selling its entire 4.31% stake through block deals on the BSE.

Mastercard Asia/Pacific Pte Ltd sold 4,97,24,182 shares of Pine Labs in 13 tranches.

The shares were sold at an average price of ₹187.75 per share, with an aggregate deal value of approximately ₹933.57 crore.

The transaction represented a 4.31% stake in Noida-based Pine Labs.

The buyers included ICICI Prudential Life Insurance Company, Kotak Mahindra Mutual Fund, Edelweiss Mutual Fund, Franklin Templeton, Goldman Sachs, Morgan Stanley, and other institutional investors.

The transaction was a secondary share sale, meaning ownership was transferred between existing investors without issuance of new shares by Pine Labs.

The transaction represented an investor exit rather than capital raising by Pine Labs.

23) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve (ABR) is located in the southern Western Ghats and spreads across Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

The Jawaharlal Nehru Tropical Botanic Garden and Research Institute (JNTBGRI), Thiruvananthapuram, compiled a comprehensive checklist of flowering plants of ABR.

The checklist was published in Plant Science Today in September 2026.

The study documented 3,261 species, 26 subspecies and 28 varieties belonging to 1,139 genera and 190 families.

Fabaceae was the most species-rich family with 349 taxa, followed by Rubiaceae (194), Poaceae (193) and Orchidaceae (168).

Detailed Explanation:

Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve (ABR) is located in the southern Western Ghats and spreads across Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

The Jawaharlal Nehru Tropical Botanic Garden and Research Institute (JNTBGRI), Thiruvananthapuram, compiled a comprehensive checklist of flowering plants of ABR.

The checklist was published in Plant Science Today in September 2026.

The study documented 3,261 species, 26 subspecies and 28 varieties belonging to 1,139 genera and 190 families.

Fabaceae was the most species-rich family with 349 taxa, followed by Rubiaceae (194), Poaceae (193) and Orchidaceae (168).

The study recorded 1,018 taxa (31.2%) endemic to India, including 245 steno-endemic taxa restricted to highly specialised habitats.

The high endemism and species diversity establish ABR as one of the important centres of angiosperm diversity and endemism in the Indian subcontinent.

ABR’s flora has a strong biogeographic affinity with Sri Lanka, with 347 taxa shared between ABR and Sri Lanka.

24) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

National Institute of Technology (NIT) Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir (J&K) became the first NIT in India to establish a dedicated campus-based astronomical observatory.

The NIT-Srinagar Observatory for Astronomy and Astrophysics (NSOAA) was inaugurated on 22 September 2026 to promote observational astronomy, astrophysics research, student training and public outreach.

The observatory is equipped with a 14-inch Celestron C14 EdgeHD aplanatic Schmidt-Cassegrain telescope with a computerised equatorial mount.

Detailed Explanation:

National Institute of Technology (NIT) Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir (J&K) became the first NIT in India to establish a dedicated campus-based astronomical observatory.

The NIT-Srinagar Observatory for Astronomy and Astrophysics (NSOAA) was inaugurated on 22 September 2026 to promote observational astronomy, astrophysics research, student training and public outreach.

The observatory is equipped with a 14-inch Celestron C14 EdgeHD aplanatic Schmidt-Cassegrain telescope with a computerised equatorial mount.

The telescope is supported by planetary and cooled deep-sky cameras, LRGB filters, a 2.5x Barlow lens and high-speed imaging capabilities.

The facility enables observations ranging from the Moon and planets to nebulae, star clusters and distant galaxies, and provides students with access to observational astronomy and astronomical imaging.

NSOAA was developed with scientific guidance and collaboration from the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), Bengaluru, with Dr. Niruj Mohan Ramanujam associated as an advisor and collaborator.

25) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

India’s first indigenous long-range One-Way Attack (OWA) drone, named KAL, successfully completed its flight testing at Pokhran Field Firing Range (PFFR), Rajasthan.

KAL was designed and developed by IG Defence, headquartered in Noida, Uttar Pradesh, and the trial validated its airframe, propulsion, avionics, navigation and mission systems.

The drone was launched from a vehicle-mounted platform, demonstrating a road-mobile launch capability for deployment from dispersed locations.

Detailed Explanation:

India’s first indigenous long-range One-Way Attack (OWA) drone, named KAL, successfully completed its flight testing at Pokhran Field Firing Range (PFFR), Rajasthan.

KAL was designed and developed by IG Defence, headquartered in Noida, Uttar Pradesh, and the trial validated its airframe, propulsion, avionics, navigation and mission systems.

The drone was launched from a vehicle-mounted platform, demonstrating a road-mobile launch capability for deployment from dispersed locations.

KAL offers a maximum range of 1,000 km, 7–8 hours endurance, 50 kg payload capacity and an operating altitude of up to 5,000 metres.

Its navigation system combines Multi-band Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) and Inertial Navigation System (INS) to enable autonomous flight and long-endurance missions.

KAL is designed for long-range strike missions, air-defence suppression and precision attack operations and forms part of IG Defence’s GRID STRIKE portfolio

26) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Premier Energies commissioned a 7 GW N-type TOPCon G12R solar cell manufacturing facility at Naidupeta, Andhra Pradesh (AP) on 21 September 2026.

The new facility increased Premier Energies’ total solar cell manufacturing capacity from 3.6 GW to 10.6 GW, making it the highest solar cell manufacturing capacity in India.

The 101-acre facility was developed with a capital expenditure of ₹3,293 crore and has started trial runs ahead of commercial production.

The plant is designed to produce around 88,000 solar cells per hour and achieve an average solar cell efficiency of about 25.8% after stabilisation.

The facility uses N-type TOPCon (Tunnel Oxide Passivated Contact) technology and G12R large-format wafer/cell technology for high-efficiency solar cells.

Detailed Explanation:

Premier Energies commissioned a 7 GW N-type TOPCon G12R solar cell manufacturing facility at Naidupeta, Andhra Pradesh (AP) on 21 September 2026.

The new facility increased Premier Energies’ total solar cell manufacturing capacity from 3.6 GW to 10.6 GW, making it the highest solar cell manufacturing capacity in India.

The 101-acre facility was developed with a capital expenditure of ₹3,293 crore and has started trial runs ahead of commercial production.

The plant is designed to produce around 88,000 solar cells per hour and achieve an average solar cell efficiency of about 25.8% after stabilisation.

The facility uses N-type TOPCon (Tunnel Oxide Passivated Contact) technology and G12R large-format wafer/cell technology for high-efficiency solar cells.

The plant incorporates digital manufacturing systems, Artificial Intelligence (AI) and a Zero Liquid Discharge (ZLD) system for water recycling and reuse.

Premier Energies plans to invest ₹12,500 crore over three years for expansion, including backward integration into ingot and wafer production and diversification into inverters, transformers and battery energy storage systems.

As of June 2026, the company had an order book worth ₹15,000 crore (₹150 billion), with solar cells accounting for 58% and solar modules 40% of the total order value.

27) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

India’s active wireless mobile subscriber base reached 1,204.01 million in July 2026, highlighting the importance of telecom security for digital payments, online services and governance.

IMEI (International Mobile Equipment Identity) is a unique 15-digit number used to identify a mobile device on a telecom network.

The first 8 digits of an IMEI form the Type Allocation Code (TAC), which identifies the device model/type.

GSMA (Global System for Mobile Communications Association) oversees the global allocation of TACs, which are assigned to manufacturers and brand owners.

A dual-SIM mobile phone generally has two IMEI numbers, with one IMEI assigned to each SIM slot.

Detailed Explanation:

India’s active wireless mobile subscriber base reached 1,204.01 million in July 2026, highlighting the importance of telecom security for digital payments, online services and governance.

IMEI (International Mobile Equipment Identity) is a unique 15-digit number used to identify a mobile device on a telecom network.

The first 8 digits of an IMEI form the Type Allocation Code (TAC), which identifies the device model/type.

GSMA (Global System for Mobile Communications Association) oversees the global allocation of TACs, which are assigned to manufacturers and brand owners.

A dual-SIM mobile phone generally has two IMEI numbers, with one IMEI assigned to each SIM slot.

Users can check their device’s *IMEI by dialling #06# and can verify IMEI details through the Sanchar Saathi portal/mobile app or by sending KYM <15-digit IMEI number> via SMS to 14422.

Sanchar Saathi enables users to verify IMEI details, including the brand, model and manufacturer, helping ensure device authenticity and security.

Lost or stolen mobile phones can be blocked through the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) after filing a police report and obtaining a replacement SIM.

28) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

India will host the 11th Asian Senior Wushu Championship in 2028, marking the first time that the prestigious continental Wushu championship will be held in India.

The decision was approved at the Wushu Federation of Asia Congress held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan.

Suhel Ahmed, representative of the Wushu Association of India, attended the Congress on behalf of India.

The championship is expected to bring together around 700 athletes from more than 35 Asian countries, along with coaches, judges, technical officials, team officials and sports administrators.

Detailed Explanation:

India will host the 11th Asian Senior Wushu Championship in 2028, marking the first time that the prestigious continental Wushu championship will be held in India.

The decision was approved at the Wushu Federation of Asia Congress held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan.

Suhel Ahmed, representative of the Wushu Association of India, attended the Congress on behalf of India.

The championship is expected to bring together around 700 athletes from more than 35 Asian countries, along with coaches, judges, technical officials, team officials and sports administrators.

Bhupender Singh Bajwa, President of the Wushu Association of India, was nominated as a member of the Executive Committee of the Wushu Federation of Asia during the Congress.

The Wushu Federation of Asia will also conduct its next Congress in India in 2028 during the championship.

Hosting the championship and the Wushu Federation of Asia Congress will provide India an opportunity to showcase its sporting infrastructure, organisational capabilities and hospitality to the Asian Wushu community.

 

29) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

Flight Lieutenant Alfred Tyrone Cooke (Retd.), a decorated Indian Air Force (IAF) fighter pilot and Vir Chakra (VrC) awardee, passed away at the age of 87 in New Delhi, Delhi, on 18 September 2026.

Alfred Tyrone Cooke was born in 1939 and was commissioned into the Indian Air Force on 19 December 1961 through the 80th Pilots Course.

He served as a fighter pilot with No. 14 Squadron (The Fighting Bulls) and completed around seven years of service before leaving the IAF in 1968.

Detailed Explanation:

Flight Lieutenant Alfred Tyrone Cooke (Retd.), a decorated Indian Air Force (IAF) fighter pilot and Vir Chakra (VrC) awardee, passed away at the age of 87 in New Delhi, Delhi, on 18 September 2026.

Alfred Tyrone Cooke was born in 1939 and was commissioned into the Indian Air Force on 19 December 1961 through the 80th Pilots Course.

He served as a fighter pilot with No. 14 Squadron (The Fighting Bulls) and completed around seven years of service before leaving the IAF in 1968.

During the 1965 India–Pakistan War, Cooke shot down a Pakistani F-86 Sabre while flying a Hawker Hunter from Kalaikunda Air Force Station, West Bengal.

His legendary aerial combat over Kalaikunda during the 1965 India–Pakistan War involved IAF pilots engaging Pakistan Air Force (PAF) Sabres.

For his exceptional courage, leadership and devotion to duty during the Battle of Kalaikunda, Alfred Tyrone Cooke was awarded the Vir Chakra (VrC).

The Vir Chakra is India’s third-highest wartime gallantry award.

30) Answer: A

World Rose Day is observed every year on 22 September 2026 to honour and encourage cancer patients and their caregivers and to spread hope, courage and positivity among people affected by cancer.

World Rose Day is observed in memory of Melinda Rose, a 12-year-old girl from Canada who was diagnosed with Askin’s Tumour, a rare form of cancer, in 1994.

After her diagnosis, doctors reportedly told Melinda Rose that she might live for only one week. However, due to her strong willpower and courage, she lived for approximately six months.