Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2026 of  23rd July  2026. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2026 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.

 

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1) As per the news, the Department of Land Resources (DoLR) is working with the Reserve Bank of India Innovation Hub (RBIH) to integrate digital land governance initiatives with which platform to enable secure, consent-based digital lending?

(a) Unified Payments Interface (UPI)

(b) Unified Lending Interface (ULI)

(c) Open Credit Enablement Network (OCEN)

(d) Public Credit Registry (PCR)

(e) Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS)

2) As per the news, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) operationalised the Digital Lending Apps (DLAs) Directory on its official website from which date to help customers verify whether a Digital Lending App is associated with an RBI Regulated Entity (RE)?

(a) 1 April 2025

(b) 8 May 2025

(c) 1 July 2025

(d) 22 October 2025

(e) 1 January 2026

3) As per the news, the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) was launched in which year to promote financial inclusion and provide universal banking services to every unbanked household?

(a) 2012

(b) 2013

(c) 2011

(d) 2015

(e) 2014

4) As per the news, consider the following statements regarding the Windfall Tax:

1. The revised windfall tax rates came into effect from 16 July 2026.
2. The Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) on diesel exports was increased to ₹15.5 per litre.
3. The export duty on petrol was reduced from ₹4 per litre to ₹2.5 per litre.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) All the above

(e) Only 2 and 3

 

5) As per the news, consider the following statements regarding the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF):

1. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) approved five urban development projects for Ahmedabad under the Urban Challenge Fund.
2. The total approved cost of these projects is ₹2,719.80 crore.
3. The approved projects include the Intelligent Water Management System (IWMS) and Intelligent Traffic Management System (ITMS).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) All the above

(e) Only 2 and 3

6) As per the news, VISHWAS 2026, the one-time dispute resolution scheme launched by the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO), will remain operational for how long from the date of its notification?

(a) Three months

(b) Six months

(c) Nine months

(d) One year

(e) Two years

7) As per the news, India’s first two 1,000-metre-deep geothermal wells have been commissioned at which location?

(a) Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Manikaran, Himachal Pradesh

(c) Kutch, Gujarat

(d) Puga Valley, Ladakh

(e) Dehradun, Uttarakhand

 

8) As per the news, the "Roadmap for Building India as a Leading Bioeconomy Powerhouse by 2035" aims to expand India's bioeconomy to what value by 2035?

(a) USD 250 billion

(b) USD 400 billion

(c) USD 500 billion

(d) USD 691 billion

(e) USD 2.6 trillion

9) As per the news, the Government of Andhra Pradesh signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with UN-Habitat to establish a Centre of Excellence (CoE) for Urban Affairs in which city?

(a) Visakhapatnam

(b) Vijayawada

(c) Kurnool

(d) Tirupati

(e) Amaravati

 

10) As per the news, the Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM) signed an MoU with CSIR-NIScPR to participate in which initiative?

(a) National Digital Library of India (NDLI)

(b) National Knowledge Resource Consortium (NKRC)

(c) National Research Foundation (NRF)

(d) One Nation One Subscription (ONOS)

(e) National Intellectual Property Mission (NIPM)

11) As per the news, who was elected as the new Chairman of the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) during the 69th Ordinary Session of the ECOWAS Authority of Heads of State and Government?

(a) Bassirou Diomaye Diakhar Faye

(b) Julius Maada Bio

(c) Bola Ahmed Tinubu

(d) Patrice Talon

(e) John Dramani Mahama

 

12) As per the news, who became the 59th Prime Minister of the United Kingdom (UK) after Keir Starmer resigned from the post?

(a) Keir Starmer

(b) Rishi Sunak

(c) Robert Kenyon

(d) Andy Burnham

(e) David Lammy

 

13) As per the news, India signed a Foreign Military Sales (FMS) Agreement with the United States to procure 24 MH-60R Seahawk helicopters in which year?

(a) 2018

(b) 2019

(c) 2020

(d) 2021

(e) 2022

 

14) As per the World Directory of Modern Military Aircraft (WDMMA) 2026 Global Air Power Rankings, the Indian Air Force (IAF) has retained which position among the world's independent air forces?

(a) 1st

(b) 2nd

(c) 3rd

(d) 5th

(e) 6th

15) As per the news, Jammu & Kashmir (J&K) Bank signed a Share Purchase Agreement (SPA) to sell its 0.5% stake in PNB MetLife India Insurance Company to which entity?

(a) Punjab National Bank

(b) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)

(c) MetLife International Holdings, LLC

(d) HDFC Life Insurance Company

(e) SBI Life Insurance Company

 

16) As per the news, the YFQ-44A Fury, which successfully conducted the first live missile launch by a Collaborative Combat Aircraft (CCA), was developed by which company?

(a) Lockheed Martin

(b) Boeing

(c) Northrop Grumman

(d) Anduril Industries

(e) General Atomics

 

17) As per the news, the newly discovered exoplanet Beta Pictoris d was discovered using which space telescope?

(a) Hubble Space Telescope

(b) Chandra X-ray Observatory

(c) James Webb Space Telescope (JWST)

(d) Spitzer Space Telescope

(e) Kepler Space Telescope

 

18) As per the news, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), in collaboration with Google Cloud, launched the Gemini Experience Centre (GEC) in which city?

(a) Bengaluru

(b) Chennai

(c) Hyderabad

(d) Kolkata

(e) Pune

 

19) As per the news, the official mascot unveiled for the Badminton World Federation (BWF) World Championships 2026 is named_________

(a) Peacko

(b) Shera

(c) Shuttle

(d) Vikram

(e) Champ

20) As per the news, National Broadcasting Day is observed every year in India on which date?

(a) 15 August

(b) 23 July

(c) 26 January

(d) 14 November

(e) 2 October

Answers:

1) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Department of Land Resources (DoLR) under the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) held a high-level meeting with the Reserve Bank of India Innovation Hub (RBIH) to strengthen the convergence of Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for land governance and digital lending.

The meeting was chaired by Narendra Bhooshan, Secretary, DoLR, who interacted with Sahil Kini, Chief Executive Officer (CEO), RBI Innovation Hub (RBIH), along with senior officials from both organisations.

The discussions focused on integrating DoLR’s digital land governance initiatives with the Unified Lending Interface (ULI) to enable secure, seamless, and consent-based credit delivery.

Detailed Explanation:

The Department of Land Resources (DoLR) under the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) held a high-level meeting with the Reserve Bank of India Innovation Hub (RBIH) to strengthen the convergence of Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for land governance and digital lending.

The initiative aims to create a secure, interoperable land-credit ecosystem to improve institutional credit access for farmers and rural citizens.

The meeting was chaired by Narendra Bhooshan, Secretary, DoLR, who interacted with Sahil Kini, Chief Executive Officer (CEO), RBI Innovation Hub (RBIH), along with senior officials from both organisations.

The discussions focused on integrating DoLR’s digital land governance initiatives with the Unified Lending Interface (ULI) to enable secure, seamless, and consent-based credit delivery.

The collaboration is aimed at providing faster institutional credit to farmers and rural citizens through digital land records.

Key areas of collaboration include secure access to authenticated digital land records, faster digital delivery of Kisan Credit Cards (KCC), agricultural loans, improved loan processing, mortgage risk management, and greater financial inclusion.

2) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Government of India (GoI) is continuously engaging with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and other regulators/stakeholders to curb the operations of fake and illegal loan apps in the country.

The RBI operationalised the Digital Lending Apps (DLAs) Directory on its official website with effect from 1 July 2025 to help customers verify whether a Digital Lending App (DLA) is associated with an RBI Regulated Entity (RE).

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has blocked 87 illegal loan lending applications under Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 after following the prescribed legal process.

Detailed Explanation:

The Government of India (GoI) is continuously engaging with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and other regulators/stakeholders to curb the operations of fake and illegal loan apps in the country.

The RBI operationalised the Digital Lending Apps (DLAs) Directory on its official website with effect from 1 July 2025 to help customers verify whether a Digital Lending App (DLA) is associated with an RBI Regulated Entity (RE).

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has blocked 87 illegal loan lending applications under Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 after following the prescribed legal process.

The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2025, notified on 22 October 2025, authorised sectoral regulators to issue directions for blocking illegal online content from public access.

The RBI issued the Reserve Bank of India (Digital Lending) Directions, 2025 on 8 May 2025, making provisions relating to loan recovery, data privacy, and customer grievance redressal mandatory for Regulated Entities (REs), Lending Service Providers (LSPs), and Digital Lending Apps (DLAs).

 

3) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The Government of India (GoI) launched the National Mission for Financial Inclusion (NMFI), namely Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), in August 2014 to promote financial inclusion and provide universal banking services to every unbanked household.

The PMJDY is based on the guiding principles of "Banking the Unbanked, Securing the Unsecured, and Funding the Unfunded."

Under PMJDY, a total of 58.63 crore Jan Dhan Accounts have been opened with total deposits of ₹3,08,333 crore as on 1 July 2026.

Detailed Explanation:

The Government of India (GoI) launched the National Mission for Financial Inclusion (NMFI), namely Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), in August 2014 to promote financial inclusion and provide universal banking services to every unbanked household.

The PMJDY is based on the guiding principles of "Banking the Unbanked, Securing the Unsecured, and Funding the Unfunded."

Under PMJDY, a total of 58.63 crore Jan Dhan Accounts have been opened with total deposits of ₹3,08,333 crore as on 1 July 2026.

Out of the total PMJDY accounts, 32.68 crore (55.74%) belong to women, while 45.62 crore (77.80%) accounts have been opened in rural and semi-urban areas.

Under the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), 27.84 crore cumulative enrolments have been recorded as on 1 July 2026, providing a life insurance cover of ₹2 lakh for death due to any reason.

Under the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY), 58.78 crore cumulative enrolments have been completed as on 1 July 2026, providing ₹2 lakh insurance for death or permanent total disability and ₹1 lakh for permanent partial disability.

4) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) on diesel exports was increased from ₹8.5 per litre to ₹15.5 per litre.

The SAED on Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) exports was increased from ₹7.5 per litre to ₹14.5 per litre.

The Government of India reduced the export duty on petrol from ₹4 per litre to ₹2.5 per litre.

Detailed Explanation:

The Government of India (GoI) increased the windfall gains tax on diesel and Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) exports, while reducing the tax on petrol exports.

According to the Ministry of Finance (MoF) notification, the revised tax rates came into effect from 16 July 2026.

Windfall Tax is a government-imposed tax on industries that earn sudden extraordinary profits due to external factors such as geopolitical crises, with the objective of redirecting these gains towards societal benefits.

The Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) on diesel exports was increased from ₹8.5 per litre to ₹15.5 per litre.

The SAED on Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) exports was increased from ₹7.5 per litre to ₹14.5 per litre.

The Government of India reduced the export duty on petrol from ₹4 per litre to ₹2.5 per litre.

Merchandise exports grew by 15.92% to USD 129.32 billion, reflecting strong performance in manufacturing and value-added sectors.

Non-petroleum exports increased by 12.44% to USD 106.30 billion, indicating broad-based export growth beyond petroleum products.

Services exports remained robust at USD 103.41 billion during April–June FY2026–27, supporting India's overall export performance.

During June 2026, total exports reached USD 73.45 billion, registering a 9.48% year-on-year growth over June 2025.

Merchandise exports in June 2026 stood at USD 40.41 billion, contributing significantly to the overall export growth.

Total imports (Merchandise + Services) during June 2026 were estimated at USD 88.76 billion, recording a growth of over 26% compared to the same month of the previous year.

India's overall trade deficit for June 2026 stood at USD 15.32 billion (Imports: USD 88.76 billion – Exports: USD 73.45 billion).

5) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) approved six transformative urban development projects worth ₹2,719.80 crore for Ahmedabad, Gujarat under the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF).

The projects aim to modernise urban infrastructure, implement smart city solutions, improve water and sanitation facilities, and enhance citizen services in Ahmedabad.

The approved projects include sewerage network rehabilitation, Intelligent Water Management System (IWMS), Integrated Sludge Management Facility, Intelligent Traffic Management System (ITMS), and Automatic Fare Collection System (AFCS).

Detailed Explanation:

The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) approved six transformative urban development projects worth ₹2,719.80 crore for Ahmedabad, Gujarat under the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF).

The projects aim to modernise urban infrastructure, implement smart city solutions, improve water and sanitation facilities, and enhance citizen services in Ahmedabad.

The approved projects include sewerage network rehabilitation, Intelligent Water Management System (IWMS), Integrated Sludge Management Facility, Intelligent Traffic Management System (ITMS), and Automatic Fare Collection System (AFCS).

The major project allocations include:

₹852.93 crore for rehabilitation of the main sewerage network in West Ahmedabad.

₹551.35 crore for strengthening the East Ahmedabad sewerage network.

₹290.24 crore for upgrading old sewerage networks across Ahmedabad.

₹215 crore for implementing an Intelligent Water Management System (IWMS).

₹479.25 crore for establishing a 125 Tonnes Per Day (TPD) Integrated Sludge Management Facility.

₹331.03 crore for implementing an Intelligent Traffic Management System (ITMS) and Automatic Fare Collection System (AFCS).

The major drivers of merchandise export growth in June 2026 were Engineering Goods, Electronic Goods, Gems & Jewellery, Organic & Inorganic Chemicals, and Rice

 

6) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) under the Ministry of Labour and Employment (MoL&E) launched VISHWAS 2026, a one-time dispute resolution scheme for the amicable settlement of damages and penalty-related disputes.

The scheme is applicable to disputes under Section 14B of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 and Section 128 of the Code on Social Security, 2020.

VISHWAS 2026 aims to promote voluntary compliance, reduce litigation, and ensure faster settlement of pending disputes through a transparent, fully digital, and time-bound process.

The scheme was notified through G.S.R. 525(E) on 29 June 2026 under the Employees’ Provident Fund Scheme, 2026 and will remain operational for six months from the date of notification.

Detailed Explanation:

The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) under the Ministry of Labour and Employment (MoL&E) launched VISHWAS 2026, a one-time dispute resolution scheme for the amicable settlement of damages and penalty-related disputes.

The scheme is applicable to disputes under Section 14B of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 and Section 128 of the Code on Social Security, 2020.

VISHWAS 2026 aims to promote voluntary compliance, reduce litigation, and ensure faster settlement of pending disputes through a transparent, fully digital, and time-bound process.

The scheme was notified through G.S.R. 525(E) on 29 June 2026 under the Employees’ Provident Fund Scheme, 2026 and will remain operational for six months from the date of notification.

Employers can apply through the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation Employer Portal using Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) or electronic signature (e-Sign) for digital verification and processing.

The scheme covers:

Damages and penalty orders under judicial challenge

Final orders with pending or partial recovery

Revenue Recovery Certificate (RRC) cases

Cases where notices have been issued but final orders are pending.

Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has established VISHWAS Cells to ensure smooth implementation of the scheme.

 

7) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh V. K. Saxena commissioned India’s first two 1,000-metre-deep geothermal wells at Puga Valley, Ladakh, developed by Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC) Energy Centre.

The geothermal wells will support the development of India’s first 1 Megawatt (MW) demonstration-scale geothermal power plant at Puga Valley, located at an altitude of over 14,000 feet above sea level.

Detailed Explanation:

Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh V. K. Saxena commissioned India’s first two 1,000-metre-deep geothermal wells at Puga Valley, Ladakh, developed by Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC) Energy Centre.

The geothermal wells will support the development of India’s first 1 Megawatt (MW) demonstration-scale geothermal power plant at Puga Valley, located at an altitude of over 14,000 feet above sea level.

These wells are the first operational geothermal wells in India aimed at clean energy generation and will help evaluate the region’s geothermal potential for future commercial projects.

The wells recorded a maximum temperature of 135°C at a depth of 400 metres, providing important data on thermal profiles, reservoir characteristics, and energy conversion mechanisms.

8) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) launched the “Roadmap for Building India as a Leading Bioeconomy Powerhouse by 2035” at the National Media Centre, New Delhi.

The roadmap was formally launched by Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology, Dr. Jitendra Singh, in the presence of Prof. Gobardhan Das, Member, NITI Aayog, and Nidhi Chhibber, Chief Executive Officer (CEO), NITI Aayog.

The roadmap aims to expand India's bioeconomy to USD 691 billion by 2035 and USD 2.6 trillion by 2047, generate over 30 million high-value jobs, and position India among the world’s top three biotechnology powers by 2035.

Detailed Explanation:

The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) launched the “Roadmap for Building India as a Leading Bioeconomy Powerhouse by 2035” at the National Media Centre, New Delhi.

The roadmap was formally launched by Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology, Dr. Jitendra Singh, in the presence of Prof. Gobardhan Das, Member, NITI Aayog, and Nidhi Chhibber, Chief Executive Officer (CEO), NITI Aayog.

The roadmap has been developed by the NITI Frontier Tech Hub (NITI-FTH) in consultation with the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) under the Ministry of Science and Technology (MoST), Association of Biotechnology Led Enterprises (ABLE), industry, academia, and other stakeholders.

The roadmap aims to expand India's bioeconomy to USD 691 billion by 2035 and USD 2.6 trillion by 2047, generate over 30 million high-value jobs, and position India among the world’s top three biotechnology powers by 2035.

India's bioeconomy has grown 16 times in the last decade, increasing from USD 10 billion in 2014 to USD 195.3 billion in 2025, contributing around 4.8% of India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

The roadmap recommends the establishment of six National BioMissions — GeneIndia, AgriBio 2.0, BioX Foundry, One Health Grid, Marine Biotechnology, and BioPharmaNext — to accelerate innovation in healthcare, agriculture, synthetic biology, marine biotechnology, and biopharmaceuticals.

GeneIndia will be led by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) in partnership with the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) to expand affordable gene therapies, cell therapies, and precision diagnostics.

AgriBio 2.0 will be led by Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), and Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare (MoA&FW) to develop climate-resilient crop varieties and quality-assured bio-inputs

 

9) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The Government of Andhra Pradesh (AP) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) to establish a long-term partnership for promoting sustainable, inclusive, and climate-resilient urban development in the state.

The partnership aims to establish a Centre of Excellence (CoE) for Urban Affairs in Amaravati, Andhra Pradesh, which will support urban planning, climate-resilient cities, digital governance, municipal finance, and implementation of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

The Municipal Administration Department, Government of Andhra Pradesh signed the MoU with United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) to strengthen urban development initiatives across the state.

Detailed Explanation:

The Government of Andhra Pradesh (AP) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) to establish a long-term partnership for promoting sustainable, inclusive, and climate-resilient urban development in the state.

The partnership aims to establish a Centre of Excellence (CoE) for Urban Affairs in Amaravati, Andhra Pradesh, which will support urban planning, climate-resilient cities, digital governance, municipal finance, and implementation of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

The Municipal Administration Department, Government of Andhra Pradesh signed the MoU with United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) to strengthen urban development initiatives across the state.

The collaboration will support key initiatives including:

Sustainable Urban Revitalisation and Growth Enhancement Andhra Pradesh (SURGE AP)

Resilient, Inclusive and Sustainable Environment Andhra Pradesh (RISE AP)

UPLIFT Andhra Pradesh

Zero Poverty vision through the P4 Programme

The MoU was signed in the presence of N. Chandrababu Naidu, Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh, and Anacláudia Rossbach, Executive Director, United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat), who participated virtually from Singapore.

10) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM) and the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research- National Institute of Science Communication and Policy Research (CSIR-NIScPR) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to enable CGPDTM’s participation in the National Knowledge Resource Consortium (NKRC).

The MoU was signed by Prof. (Dr.) Unnat P. Pandit, Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM), and Dr. Geeta Vani Rayasam, Director, Council of Scientific and Industrial Research-National Institute of Science Communication and Policy Research (CSIR-NIScPR) at Saraswati Hall, Bouddhik Sampada Bhawan, New Delhi.

Detailed Explanation:

The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM) and the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research- National Institute of Science Communication and Policy Research (CSIR-NIScPR) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to enable CGPDTM’s participation in the National Knowledge Resource Consortium (NKRC).

The MoU was signed by Prof. (Dr.) Unnat P. Pandit, Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM), and Dr. Geeta Vani Rayasam, Director, Council of Scientific and Industrial Research-National Institute of Science Communication and Policy Research (CSIR-NIScPR) at Saraswati Hall, Bouddhik Sampada Bhawan, New Delhi.

Under the agreement, Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM) will receive access to the National Knowledge Resource Consortium (NKRC) digital knowledge platform, which provides international scientific journals, e-books, databases, patents, and other academic resources.

The partnership aims to strengthen scientific research, innovation, and intellectual property administration by providing patent professionals and researchers access to high-quality global knowledge resources.

11) Answer: A

Bassirou Diomaye Diakhar Faye, President of Senegal, was elected as the new Chairman of the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) during the 69th Ordinary Session of the ECOWAS Authority of Heads of State and Government held in Freetown, Sierra Leone.

Bassirou Diomaye Diakhar Faye will serve a mandatory one-year term as ECOWAS Chairman and succeeded President Julius Maada Bio of Sierra Leone, who had served as ECOWAS Chairman since June 2025.

12) Answer: D

Andy Burnham became the 59th Prime Minister (PM) of the United Kingdom (UK) after Keir Starmer resigned from the post.

King Charles III invited Andy Burnham to Buckingham Palace to form the new government through the traditional "kissing hands" ceremony.

Andy Burnham secured nearly 55% of the vote in the Labour Party leadership election, defeating Reform UK's Robert Kenyon by a margin of more than 9,000 votes

13) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The United States of America (USA) delivered the 21st MH-60R Seahawk multi-role maritime helicopter to the Indian Navy (IN) at Kochi, Kerala, further strengthening the India–USA defence partnership and enhancing India's maritime security capabilities.

India signed a Foreign Military Sales (FMS) Agreement with the USA in February 2020 to procure 24 MH-60R Seahawk helicopters at a total cost of USD 2.6 billion.

Detailed Explanation:

The United States of America (USA) delivered the 21st MH-60R Seahawk multi-role maritime helicopter to the Indian Navy (IN) at Kochi, Kerala, further strengthening the India–USA defence partnership and enhancing India's maritime security capabilities.

The induction of the MH-60R Seahawk will enhance the Indian Navy's operational readiness, strengthen its Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) capabilities, and improve interoperability with the United States Navy (US Navy) in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).

India signed a Foreign Military Sales (FMS) Agreement with the USA in February 2020 to procure 24 MH-60R Seahawk helicopters at a total cost of USD 2.6 billion.

The procurement aims to replace the ageing Sea King fleet and significantly strengthen the Indian Navy's naval aviation capabilities.

14) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Indian Air Force (IAF) has retained its position as the World's 3rd Most Powerful Independent Air Force for the 5th consecutive year in the World Directory of Modern Military Aircraft (WDMMA) 2026 Global Air Power Rankings.

In the Independent Air Force Rankings, only the United States and Russia rank above the Indian Air Force (IAF), placing India at 3rd position globally.

The World Directory of Modern Military Aircraft (WDMMA) assessed 129 air services across 103 countries using its True Value Rating (TVR) system.

Detailed Explanation:

The Indian Air Force (IAF) has retained its position as the World's 3rd Most Powerful Independent Air Force for the 5th consecutive year in the World Directory of Modern Military Aircraft (WDMMA) 2026 Global Air Power Rankings.

In the Independent Air Force Rankings, only the United States and Russia rank above the Indian Air Force (IAF), placing India at 3rd position globally.

The World Directory of Modern Military Aircraft (WDMMA) assessed 129 air services across 103 countries using its True Value Rating (TVR) system.

The True Value Rating (TVR) evaluates fleet quality, technology, modernisation, logistics, and operational capability, rather than simply counting the number of aircraft.

When all military aviation branches (Air Force, Navy and Army) are considered together, the Indian Air Force (IAF) ranks 6th globally, behind the US Air Force, US Navy, Russian Air Force, US Army, and US Marines.

In the combined military aviation rankings, China's Air Force is placed at 7th position, immediately after the Indian Air Force (IAF).

15) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Jammu & Kashmir (J&K) Bank signed a Share Purchase Agreement (SPA) to sell its 0.5% stake in PNB MetLife India Insurance Company to MetLife International Holdings, LLC for approximately ₹120.1 crore.

Under the transaction, J&K Bank will divest 10.25 million equity shares in PNB MetLife at a price of ₹117.20 per share, taking the total transaction value to ₹120.1 crore.

Detailed Explanation:

Jammu & Kashmir (J&K) Bank signed a Share Purchase Agreement (SPA) to sell its 0.5% stake in PNB MetLife India Insurance Company to MetLife International Holdings, LLC for approximately ₹120.1 crore.

Under the transaction, J&K Bank will divest 10.25 million equity shares in PNB MetLife at a price of ₹117.20 per share, taking the total transaction value to ₹120.1 crore.

After completion of the deal, J&K Bank's shareholding in PNB MetLife will reduce from 3.034% to 2.534% (approximately 3% to 2.5%).

MetLife International Holdings, LLC, an existing promoter and shareholder of PNB MetLife India Insurance Company, is acquiring the additional stake from J&K Bank.

 

16) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The United States Air Force (USAF) successfully conducted the first live missile launch by a Collaborative Combat Aircraft (CCA) using the YFQ-44A Fury drone at Edwards Air Force Base, California, USA.

The YFQ-44A Fury fired a live AIM-120 Advanced Medium-Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM) at a digital target over the Mojave Desert.

The successful test marked the first-ever live Air Intercept Missile launch by a US Collaborative Combat Aircraft (CCA).

The YFQ-44A Fury is an advanced semi-autonomous Unmanned Combat Aerial Vehicle (UCAV) developed by Anduril Industries.

Detailed Explanation:

The United States Air Force (USAF) successfully conducted the first live missile launch by a Collaborative Combat Aircraft (CCA) using the YFQ-44A Fury drone at Edwards Air Force Base, California, USA.

The YFQ-44A Fury fired a live AIM-120 Advanced Medium-Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM) at a digital target over the Mojave Desert.

The successful test marked the first-ever live Air Intercept Missile launch by a US Collaborative Combat Aircraft (CCA).

The live-fire test was conducted in coordination with the 412th Test Wing’s Air Dominance Combined Test Force, comprising active-duty military personnel, government civilians, and government contractors.

The YFQ-44A Fury is an advanced semi-autonomous Unmanned Combat Aerial Vehicle (UCAV) developed by Anduril Industries.

The YFQ-44A Fury is designed to operate alongside crewed fighter aircraft such as the F-35 and F-22, providing additional sensors, weapons, and operational support during combat missions.

 

17) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Astronomers using National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)’s James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) discovered a new giant exoplanet, Beta Pictoris d, located 63 light-years from Earth and estimated to be about 23 million years old.

With the discovery of Beta Pictoris d, the Beta Pictoris system has become only the second known planetary system with at least three directly imaged planets.

Detailed Explanation:

Astronomers using National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)’s James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) discovered a new giant exoplanet, Beta Pictoris d, located 63 light-years from Earth and estimated to be about 23 million years old.

With the discovery of Beta Pictoris d, the Beta Pictoris system has become only the second known planetary system with at least three directly imaged planets.

Beta Pictoris d orbits the nearby star Beta Pictoris, which already hosts Beta Pictoris b and Beta Pictoris c.

Beta Pictoris b is notable as one of the first exoplanets ever directly imaged, making the Beta Pictoris system historically significant in exoplanet research.

JWST’s Near-Infrared Spectrograph (NIRSpec) detected the unique chemical fingerprint of Beta Pictoris d’s atmosphere, enabling its discovery.

Beta Pictoris d is estimated to have at least twice the mass of Jupiter, making it the smallest of the three known giant planets in the Beta Pictoris system.

 

18) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), in collaboration with Google Cloud, launched a Gemini Experience Centre (GEC) in Kolkata, West Bengal, to showcase Artificial Intelligence (AI)-driven innovations for consumer businesses.

The Kolkata Gemini Experience Centre is the 3rd GEC in India, following the centres established in Chennai and Bengaluru.

TCS plans to establish 10 Gemini Experience Centres (GECs) globally by the end of 2026, including 4 centres in India.

Detailed Explanation:

Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), in collaboration with Google Cloud, launched a Gemini Experience Centre (GEC) in Kolkata, West Bengal, to showcase Artificial Intelligence (AI)-driven innovations for consumer businesses.

The Kolkata Gemini Experience Centre is the 3rd GEC in India, following the centres established in Chennai and Bengaluru.

TCS plans to establish 10 Gemini Experience Centres (GECs) globally by the end of 2026, including 4 centres in India.

The Gemini Experience Centre (GEC) is built using Google Cloud infrastructure and Google's Gemini AI models to accelerate enterprise AI adoption.

The centre will enable businesses in Retail, Consumer Packaged Goods (CPG), Travel, Tourism, and Hospitality to co-create, test, and scale AI-powered solutions.

19) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports Mansukh Mandaviya and Dr. Himanta Biswa Sarma, President of Badminton Association of India and Chief Minister of Assam, unveiled the official mascot ‘Peacko’ and launched the championship anthem for the Badminton World Federation (BWF) World Championships 2026 in New Delhi, Delhi.

The 30th edition of the Badminton World Federation World Championships will be held from 17–23 August 2026 at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi.

Detailed Explanation:

Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports Mansukh Mandaviya and Dr. Himanta Biswa Sarma, President of Badminton Association of India and Chief Minister of Assam, unveiled the official mascot ‘Peacko’ and launched the championship anthem for the Badminton World Federation (BWF) World Championships 2026 in New Delhi, Delhi.

The 30th edition of the Badminton World Federation World Championships will be held from 17–23 August 2026 at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi.

The championship will witness participation from more than 400 badminton players from over 50 countries.

The official mascot ‘Peacko’ is inspired by the Indian Peafowl (Peacock) and represents the pride, vibrancy, and sporting spirit of India.

The championship anthem features India’s 16-member Badminton World Federation World Championships contingent, highlighting the energy, ambition, and unity of Indian badminton.

 

20) Answer: B

National Broadcasting Day is observed every year on 23 July in India to commemorate the first-ever radio broadcast in the country, which took place on 23 July 1927.

National Broadcasting Day 2026 marks the beginning of organised radio broadcasting in India and highlights the role of broadcasting in information dissemination, education, entertainment, and national development.