Daily Current Affairs Quiz - 15th September 2026
Sep 16 2026
Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2026 of 15th September 2026. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2026 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.
1) Under the EPFO framework, rupee-denominated bonds issued by the New Development Bank (NDB) are eligible for investment by exempted establishments if they have an outstanding maturity of at least_________
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 5 years
(e) 10 years
2) Which of the following entities was imposed a monetary penalty of ₹27.30 lakh by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for non-compliance with its directions on Income Recognition?
(a) Asset Care & Reconstruction Enterprise Limited (ACRE)
(b) Edelweiss Asset Reconstruction Company Limited
(c) Phoenix ARC Private Limited
(d) India Resurgence Asset Reconstruction Company Limited
(e) Prudent ARC Limited
3) In news, JioFinance+ launched by Jio Finance Platform and Service Limited (JFPSL) is based on which model?
(a) Cashback model
(b) Reward-point model
(c) Value-back model
(d) Subscription model
(e) Discount-back model
4) In 2026, PhonePe has obtained two licences from which authority to begin its local international operations in the United Arab Emirates (UAE)?
(a) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(b) Central Bank of the UAE
(c) UAE Ministry of Finance
(d) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(e) Dubai Financial Services Authority (DFSA)
5) Which two countries is Indian Bank exploring for establishing a presence as part of its international expansion strategy?
(a) Malaysia and Indonesia
(b) Singapore and Malaysia
(c) Indonesia and Thailand
(d) UAE and Malaysia
(e) Sri Lanka and Indonesia
6) Which technology enables UPI Tap & Pay to facilitate contactless payments by tapping an NFC-enabled smartphone on an NFC-enabled PoS terminal?
(a) Bluetooth
(b) Near Field Communication
(c) Radio Frequency Identification
(d) Wi-Fi Direct
(e) Infrared Communication
7) Under the “Demat 2.0” pilot framework, which technology is used to create corporate bonds as digital tokens?
Under the “Demat 2.0” pilot framework, which technology is used to create corporate bonds as digital tokens?
(a) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
(b) Blockchain only
(c) Distributed Ledger Technology (DLT)
(d) Internet of Things (IoT)
(e) Quantum Computing
8) Which programme has been launched by SBI Mutual Fund to provide an assisted digital onboarding experience for first-time mutual-fund investors?
(a) Aarambh
(b) Nivesh Setu
(c) SIP Saathi
(d) MF Pravesh
(e) Investment Mitra
9) Which service was launched by the Supreme Court of India on the occasion of Hindi Diwas to provide simplified judicial information in Hindi?
(a) Nyaya Vani
(b) Jan Soochna Seva
(c) Nyaya Setu
(d) Hindi Nyaya Portal
(e) Jan Nyaya Sewa
10) From when will the amended Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 come into force?
(a) 1 October 2026
(b) 1 December 2026
(c) 1 January 2027
(d) 1 April 2027
(e) 1 July 2027
11) Where was the India Photonics Association (IPA), India’s first independent, ecosystem-led industry body dedicated to the photonics sector, launched?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Mumbai
(d) New Delhi
(e) Chennai
12) In news, the “Unincorporated Sector at the District Level: Insights from Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises 2025” report released by the National Statistics Office covers how many districts?
(a) 707 out of 720 districts
(b) 737 out of 750 districts
(c) 770 out of 800 districts
(d) 767 out of 780 districts
(e) 757 out of 770 districts
13) Where will the World Circular Economy Forum 2026 be held?
(a) New Delhi, Delhi
(b) Gandhinagar, Gujarat
(c) Mumbai, Maharashtra
(d) Bengaluru, Karnataka
(e) Hyderabad, Telangana
14) Consider the following statements regarding the Sansad Ratna Awards 2026:
- The 16th Sansad Ratna Awards 2026 recognised 12 individual Members of Parliament and 4 Parliamentary Committees.
- P. Chaudhary received the Sansad Ratna Award for the fourth time.
- He also the Chairman of the Joint Parliamentary Committee on One Nation, One Election.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All the above
(e) None of the above
15) How many new projects are proposed under the MoU signed by the Odisha Government with International Holding Company of the UAE and the Adani Group?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 14
(e) 18
16) Consider the following statements regarding the Amended BharatNet Program:
- The Union Cabinet approved the Amended BharatNet Program on 4 August 2023.
- The programme aims to provide broadband connectivity to Gram Panchayats and villages on a demand basis.
- In Jharkhand, the programme covers 4,395 Gram Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All the above
(e) None of the above
17) Which of the following institutions signed a five-year Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Institute of Teaching and Research in Ayurveda (ITRA), Jamnagar, to strengthen cooperation in Ayurveda, integrative healthcare, education and research?
(a) Patanjali Research Institute
(b) Heartfulness Institute
(c) National Institute of Ayurveda
(d) All India Institute of Ayurveda
(e) Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences
18) In news, the three-day Table Top Exercise (TTX) conducted from 9–11 September 2026 was held under which regional security grouping?
(a) Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)
(b) Colombo Security Conclave (CSC)
(c) ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF)
(d) Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)
(e) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
19) Which of the following banks is NOT included among the banks in which ICICI Prudential AMC has received RBI approval to acquire an aggregate stake of up to 9.95%?
(a) CSB Bank
(b) DCB Bank
(c) Kotak Mahindra Bank
(d) AU Small Finance Bank
(e) IDFC FIRST Bank
20) Who has been appointed as the new Permanent Under-Secretary (PUS) of the UK’s Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Office (FCDO)?
(a) Lindy Cameron
(b) Karen Pierce
(c) Catherine Colonna
(d) Deborah Bronnert
(e) Wendy Morton
21) What is the planned number of satellites in India’s Space-Based Surveillance Phase-III (SBS-III) constellation?
(a) 31
(b) 42
(c) 52
(d) 75
(e) 82
22) Which reproductive technology was used by scientists from ICAR–NDRI and G.B. Pant University to produce the healthy female calf of Uttarakhand’s indigenous Badri cattle breed?
(a) Embryo Transfer Technology (ETT)
(b) Artificial Insemination (AI)
(c) OPU-IVF technology
(d) Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT)
(e) Genome Editing Technology
23) Where will HyperVault AI Data Center Ltd, a subsidiary of Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), develop its AI-focused data centre campus?
(a) Bengaluru, Karnataka
(b) Hyderabad, Telangana
(c) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
(d) Pune, Maharashtra
(e) Noida, Uttar Pradesh
24) Who won the 2026 United States Open men’s singles title by defeating Ben Shelton?
(a) Alexander Zverev
(b) Dominic Thiem
(c) Jannik Sinner
(d) Novak Djokovic
(e) Carlos Alcaraz
25) Who was named Player of the Match in the Women’s Asia Cup 2026 final between India and Sri Lanka?
(a) Smriti Mandhana
(b) Deepti Sharma
(c) Shree Charani
(d) Shafali Verma
(e) Harmanpreet Kaur
26) Who scored the only goal for India in the Indian Junior Women’s Hockey Team’s 1-0 victory over China in the Junior Asia Cup 2026 final?
(a) Sanika Chandrakant Mane
(b) Lalit Upadhyay
(c) Mumtaz Khan
(d) Deepika
(e) Vaishnavi Vitthal Phalke
27) Who became the new WTA World No. 1 after winning the 2026 United States Open women’s singles title?
(a) Aryna Sabalenka
(b) Elena Rybakina
(c) Iga Świątek
(d) Coco Gauff
(e) Jessica Pegula
28) On which date is Hindi Diwas observed annually in India?
(a) 10 September
(b) 12 September
(c) 14 September
(d) 15 September
(e) 16 September
29) What is the target share of financing for non-sovereign operations set by the New Development Bank (NDB) under its current General Strategy?
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
(e) 50%
30) As of September 2026, in how many countries is UPI accepted or being deployed as part of its international expansion?
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 13
(e) 15
Answers:
1) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
The Government of India has allowed specified New Development Bank (NDB) bonds to become eligible for investment by exempted establishments under the EPFO framework.
Under the “Debt Instruments and Related Investments” category, rupee-denominated bonds issued by NDB with an outstanding maturity of at least 3 years have been included.
NDB bonds have been included alongside bonds issued by the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), International Finance Corporation (IFC) and Asian Development Bank (ADB).
Detailed Explanation:
The Government of India has allowed specified New Development Bank (NDB) bonds to become eligible for investment by exempted establishments under the EPFO framework.
Under the “Debt Instruments and Related Investments” category, rupee-denominated bonds issued by NDB with an outstanding maturity of at least 3 years have been included.
NDB bonds have been included alongside bonds issued by the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), International Finance Corporation (IFC) and Asian Development Bank (ADB).
An EPF exempted establishment can invest a minimum of 35% and maximum of 45% of its funds in investments covered under the Debt Instruments and Related Investments category, subject to applicable rules.
An EPF Exempted Establishment is an employer that operates its own Private Provident Fund Trust after obtaining exemption under Section 17 of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act.
Such exempted establishments are permitted to manage employees’ provident-fund savings through their own PF Trust, while providing benefits at least equivalent to those available under EPFO.
2) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed a monetary penalty of ₹27.30 lakh on Asset Care & Reconstruction Enterprise Limited (ACRE), an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC).
The penalty was imposed through an RBI order dated 8 September 2026 for non-compliance with RBI directions on Income Recognition.
The penalty was imposed under Section 12 read with Section 30A(1) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002.
SARFAESI stands for Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002.
RBI conducted a statutory inspection of ACRE with reference to its financial position as on 31 March 2025.
Detailed Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed a monetary penalty of ₹27.30 lakh on Asset Care & Reconstruction Enterprise Limited (ACRE), an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC).
The penalty was imposed through an RBI order dated 8 September 2026 for non-compliance with RBI directions on Income Recognition.
The penalty was imposed under Section 12 read with Section 30A(1) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002.
SARFAESI stands for Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002.
RBI conducted a statutory inspection of ACRE with reference to its financial position as on 31 March 2025.
Based on the supervisory findings of non-compliance and related correspondence, RBI issued a show-cause notice to ACRE asking why a monetary penalty should not be imposed.
RBI considered ACRE’s reply to the show-cause notice, additional submissions and oral representations during the personal hearing before taking the final decision.
After examining the submissions, RBI found the charge of non-compliance with its Income Recognition directions sustained, warranting the imposition of the monetary penalty.
3) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
Jio Finance Platform and Service Limited (JFPSL), a wholly owned subsidiary of Jio Financial Services Limited, has launched two new features on the JioFinance app — JioFinance+ and JioFinance360.
JioFinance+ is a membership programme based on a “value-back” model, under which part of the commission earned from eligible marketplace transactions is returned to customers as direct benefits.
JioFinance+ membership is free for the first 365 days and provides customers with various financial rewards.
Detailed Explanation:
Jio Finance Platform and Service Limited (JFPSL), a wholly owned subsidiary of Jio Financial Services Limited, has launched two new features on the JioFinance app — JioFinance+ and JioFinance360.
JioFinance+ is a membership programme based on a “value-back” model, under which part of the commission earned from eligible marketplace transactions is returned to customers as direct benefits.
JioFinance+ membership is free for the first 365 days and provides customers with various financial rewards.
JioFinance+ offers cash valuebacks of up to ₹5,000 on personal loans and up to ₹1,000 on credit cards.
JioFinance+ also provides an additional 1% JioGold on lump-sum gold purchases of ₹2,500 and above.
Eligible transactions under JioFinance+ provide 25% additional JioPoints to members.
JioFinance360 is a consolidated financial-health dashboard that combines information on bank accounts, investments, loans, insurance policies and recurring expenses into a single report.
4) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
PhonePe, India’s largest UPI app by market share, is set to launch its first local international operations in the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
The Bengaluru-based fintech company has obtained two licences from the Central Bank of the UAE to begin its operations in the country.
The UAE licences will allow PhonePe to offer consumer payment instruments, including digital wallets and gift cards, along with e-payment acceptance infrastructure for merchants.
PhonePe’s UAE operations will be able to use the country’s domestic payment infrastructure, including Aani, the UAE’s instant-payment platform.
Detailed Explanation:
PhonePe, India’s largest UPI app by market share, is set to launch its first local international operations in the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
The Bengaluru-based fintech company has obtained two licences from the Central Bank of the UAE to begin its operations in the country.
The UAE licences will allow PhonePe to offer consumer payment instruments, including digital wallets and gift cards, along with e-payment acceptance infrastructure for merchants.
PhonePe’s UAE operations will be able to use the country’s domestic payment infrastructure, including Aani, the UAE’s instant-payment platform.
India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is already connected with the UAE’s local payment network, supporting cross-border digital payments.
The UAE entry is expected to create new use cases such as India–UAE remittances and facilitate domestic transactions for UAE-registered users.
Sameer Nigam, Co-founder and CEO of PhonePe, announced the UAE expansion at the Global Fintech Fest 2026 in Mumbai.
5) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
Indian Bank has received Board approval to open a representative office in Dubai, UAE, to expand its overseas operations and strengthen its presence in West Asia.
The proposed Dubai Representative Office will primarily support Non-Resident Indian (NRI) customers and strengthen business opportunities between India and the UAE.
Around 33% of Dubai’s working population is Indian, making Dubai an important market for serving the Indian diaspora.
Indian Bank is also exploring the possibility of establishing a presence in Malaysia and Indonesia as part of its international expansion strategy.
Detailed Explanation:
Indian Bank has received Board approval to open a representative office in Dubai, UAE, to expand its overseas operations and strengthen its presence in West Asia.
The proposed Dubai Representative Office will primarily support Non-Resident Indian (NRI) customers and strengthen business opportunities between India and the UAE.
Around 33% of Dubai’s working population is Indian, making Dubai an important market for serving the Indian diaspora.
Indian Bank is currently seeking the required regulatory approvals for establishing the Dubai representative office.
Indian Bank already has an international presence through a full-service branch in Singapore, branches in Colombo and Jaffna in Sri Lanka, and an IFSC Banking Unit (IBU) at GIFT City, Gandhinagar.
The IFSC Banking Unit (IBU) at GIFT City functions as an offshore/foreign branch of Indian Bank.
Indian Bank is also exploring the possibility of establishing a presence in Malaysia and Indonesia as part of its international expansion strategy.
6) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) unveiled two new digital-payment products, UPI Tap & Pay and MyUPI, at the Global Fintech Fest in Mumbai.
UPI Tap & Pay enables users to make payments by tapping an NFC-enabled smartphone on an NFC-enabled Point-of-Sale (PoS) terminal without opening a UPI application.
UPI Tap & Pay uses Near Field Communication (NFC) technology to enable contactless UPI payments.
A key feature of UPI Tap & Pay is that the user’s smartphone does not require an active mobile internet connection; the transaction can use the internet connectivity of the PoS terminal.
Detailed Explanation:
The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) unveiled two new digital-payment products, UPI Tap & Pay and MyUPI, at the Global Fintech Fest in Mumbai.
UPI Tap & Pay enables users to make payments by tapping an NFC-enabled smartphone on an NFC-enabled Point-of-Sale (PoS) terminal without opening a UPI application.
UPI Tap & Pay uses Near Field Communication (NFC) technology to enable contactless UPI payments.
A key feature of UPI Tap & Pay is that the user’s smartphone does not require an active mobile internet connection; the transaction can use the internet connectivity of the PoS terminal.
UPI Tap & Pay can work in low or no-network conditions, including situations such as airplane mode, subject to the supported payment setup.
UPI Tap & Pay is currently supported by 32 banks, 15 UPI applications, 8 acquirers and aggregators, and 18 payment service providers.
MyUPI is an AI-powered customer-support and payments assistant integrated with UPI Help.
MyUPI uses NPCI’s Small Language Model (FiMI) to provide intelligent assistance to UPI users.
7) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) launched “Demat 2.0”, a pilot framework for tokenising corporate bonds using Distributed Ledger Technology (DLT) and the RBI’s Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC).
Under Demat 2.0, corporate bonds are created as digital tokens on a distributed ledger, while the money leg is settled through the RBI’s wholesale e-rupee/CBDC.
The framework enables “atomic settlement”, under which the bond and money move simultaneously, reducing settlement risk and delays.
Detailed Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) launched “Demat 2.0”, a pilot framework for tokenising corporate bonds using Distributed Ledger Technology (DLT) and the RBI’s Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC).
Under Demat 2.0, corporate bonds are created as digital tokens on a distributed ledger, while the money leg is settled through the RBI’s wholesale e-rupee/CBDC.
The framework enables “atomic settlement”, under which the bond and money move simultaneously, reducing settlement risk and delays.
Demat 2.0 aims to make corporate-bond transactions faster, safer and more efficient, with investors potentially receiving funds immediately after secondary-market transactions instead of waiting 2–3 days under earlier settlement processes.
Three companies—REC, Larsen & Toubro (L&T) and IIFL—have already issued tokenised corporate bonds, collectively raising ₹1,025 crore.
REC became the first issuer, raising ₹500 crore, while L&T raised ₹500 crore and IIFL raised ₹25 crore.
The first phase of the pilot focuses on bond issuance, while later phases will introduce secondary-market buying and selling through existing RFQ platforms and eventually extend access to retail investors.
8) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
SBI Mutual Fund, India’s largest fund house, has launched “Aarambh”, an assisted digital onboarding programme aimed at helping first-time investors begin their mutual-fund investment journey.
“Aarambh” means “a beginning” and is designed to provide new investors with a simple, seamless and guided investment onboarding experience.
The initiative helps investors understand basic concepts such as Mutual Funds, Systematic Investment Plans (SIPs), risk, returns and long-term investing.
Detailed Explanation:
SBI Mutual Fund, India’s largest fund house, has launched “Aarambh”, an assisted digital onboarding programme aimed at helping first-time investors begin their mutual-fund investment journey.
“Aarambh” means “a beginning” and is designed to provide new investors with a simple, seamless and guided investment onboarding experience.
The initiative helps investors understand basic concepts such as Mutual Funds, Systematic Investment Plans (SIPs), risk, returns and long-term investing.
Under Aarambh, an SBI branch official/authorised representative, SBI MF Relationship Manager or Mutual Fund Distribution Partner can assist a prospective investor throughout the onboarding process.
The entire process, from the first interaction to completing the first investment, can be completed through a single digital session.
Aarambh introduces an Aadhaar-based biometric eKYC and eSign facility, allowing investors to complete onboarding using a fingerprint.
9) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
On the occasion of Hindi Diwas, the Supreme Court of India launched Jan Soochna Seva, a new public information service in Hindi.
The initiative aims to make access to justice more inclusive by helping citizens understand important judicial information in a familiar language.
Under the service, simplified Hindi summaries of selected significant Supreme Court judgments and orders will be provided.
The service will also offer Hindi audio and video bulletins of approximately 15 to 30 minutes.
Detailed Explanation:
On the occasion of Hindi Diwas, the Supreme Court of India launched Jan Soochna Seva, a new public information service in Hindi.
The initiative aims to make access to justice more inclusive by helping citizens understand important judicial information in a familiar language.
Under the service, simplified Hindi summaries of selected significant Supreme Court judgments and orders will be provided.
The service will also offer Hindi audio and video bulletins of approximately 15 to 30 minutes.
The initiative is intended to benefit ordinary citizens, litigants and persons with disabilities by making significant judgments, their implications and subsequent proceedings easier to understand.
The use of simple language, audio and video formats will particularly support people who face difficulties in reading or understanding lengthy legal documents.
The initiative connects the promotion of Indian languages with wider dissemination of judicial information to the public.
10) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
The Government of India has amended the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 to strengthen price transparency, sponsored listings, search-result practices and protection against dark patterns in online marketplaces.
The amended rules will come into force from 1 January 2027.
E-commerce entities must disclose both the reduced price and prior price whenever a price discount is announced.
The prior price has been defined as the lowest price at which the product was offered during the 30 days preceding the announcement of the discount.
Detailed Explanation:
The Government of India has amended the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 to strengthen price transparency, sponsored listings, search-result practices and protection against dark patterns in online marketplaces.
The amended rules will come into force from 1 January 2027.
E-commerce entities must disclose both the reduced price and prior price whenever a price discount is announced.
The prior price has been defined as the lowest price at which the product was offered during the 30 days preceding the announcement of the discount.
E-commerce entities are prohibited from manipulating search results in a manner that misleads consumers or adversely affects the relevance of results to their search queries.
The amendments aim to create a more transparent, accountable and consumer-centric e-commerce ecosystem.
Every e-commerce entity will be required to become a partner in the convergence process of the National Consumer Helpline, strengthening the grievance redressal mechanism for consumers.
E-commerce entities must provide a copy of the complaint recorded by their grievance officer to the complainant.
For imported goods, e-commerce entities must disclose the importer’s details and country of origin.
11) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
India Photonics Association (IPA) was launched at India Habitat Centre, New Delhi, as India’s first independent, ecosystem-led industry body dedicated to the photonics sector.
The association aims to promote innovation, industry collaboration, knowledge-sharing and policy support for India’s growing photonics ecosystem.
India Photonics Association will act as a neutral platform connecting industry, researchers and policymakers to accelerate the growth of the photonics sector and improve India’s global competitiveness.
Detailed Explanation:
India Photonics Association (IPA) was launched at India Habitat Centre, New Delhi, as India’s first independent, ecosystem-led industry body dedicated to the photonics sector.
The association aims to promote innovation, industry collaboration, knowledge-sharing and policy support for India’s growing photonics ecosystem.
India Photonics Association will act as a neutral platform connecting industry, researchers and policymakers to accelerate the growth of the photonics sector and improve India’s global competitiveness.
The association was inaugurated in the presence of Sarin Sundar, Chief Technology Officer, India Semiconductor Mission, along with industry leaders, technology experts, researchers and other stakeholders.
Photonics is the science and technology of generating, manipulating, transmitting and detecting light (photons) for carrying information and energy.
Unlike electronics, which uses the movement of electrons, photonics uses light and photons through technologies such as optical fibres, lasers, optical chips and sensors.
Photonics enables high-speed, high-bandwidth and low-loss data transmission.
12) Answer: E
Short Explanation:
The National Statistics Office, under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, released “Unincorporated Sector at the District Level: Insights from Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises 2025” for the first time.
The report is based on the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises 2025, covering January to December 2025.
It provides district-level estimates on the scale, structure and economic performance of India’s unincorporated non-agricultural sector.
The report covers 757 out of 770 districts available in the sampling frame during the selection of theAnnual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises 2025 sample.
Detailed Explanation:
The National Statistics Office, under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, released “Unincorporated Sector at the District Level: Insights from Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises 2025” for the first time.
The report is based on the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises 2025, covering January to December 2025.
It provides district-level estimates on the scale, structure and economic performance of India’s unincorporated non-agricultural sector.
The report covers 757 out of 770 districts available in the sampling frame during the selection of theAnnual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises 2025 sample.
The top 10 districts account for about one-tenth of the total establishments, workers and Gross Value Added, while the top 50 districts account for nearly one-third of each.
The top 10 districts are spread across Gujarat, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
The top 50 districts are spread across 12 States: Bihar, Gujarat, Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
Around one-third of districts have more than 1 lakh unincorporated establishments, while about 9% have fewer than 10,000 establishments.
Only 16 districts have more than 5 lakh unincorporated establishments each: 8 in West Bengal, 3 in Maharashtra, 2 in Gujarat, and 1 each in Karnataka, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh.
13) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
India will host the World Circular Economy Forum 2026 in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, from 15 to 18 September 2026.
This will be the first time the global forum is being held in South Asia.
The theme of World Circular Economy Forum 2026 is “Circular Economy: Transition for People and Prosperity.”
The forum will bring together 2,000+ stakeholders from more than 65 countries, including business leaders, entrepreneurs, innovators, researchers, policymakers and academicians.
Detailed Explanation:
India will host the World Circular Economy Forum 2026 in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, from 15 to 18 September 2026.
This will be the first time the global forum is being held in South Asia.
The theme of World Circular Economy Forum 2026 is “Circular Economy: Transition for People and Prosperity.”
The forum will bring together 2,000+ stakeholders from more than 65 countries, including business leaders, entrepreneurs, innovators, researchers, policymakers and academicians.
Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change Bhupender Yadav and Gujarat Chief Minister Bhupendrabhai Patel will jointly inaugurate the forum on 15 September 2026.
The event is jointly organised by the Central Pollution Control Board, Finnish Innovation Fund Sitra, Government of Finland, Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of Gujarat and Gujarat Pollution Control Board.
The forum will showcase India’s circular economy initiatives and promote international cooperation on sustainable production and consumption.
On the sidelines of the forum, the Board of the 10 Year Framework of Programmes on Sustainable Consumption and Production Patterns will hold an in-person meeting in Gandhinagar on 15 September.
India has recently assumed the role of Co-Chair of the 10 Year Framework of Programmes Board, strengthening its engagement in promoting sustainable consumption and production.
14) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
The 16th Sansad Ratna Awards 2026 were presented in New Delhi to recognise outstanding parliamentary performance based on measurable indicators up to the Budget Session 2026.
12 individual Members of Parliament and 4 Parliamentary Committees were selected for the Sansad Ratna Awards 2026.
The award categories included 10 Lok Sabha Members of Parliament, 2 Rajya Sabha Members of Parliament and 4 Parliamentary Standing Committees.
P.P. Chaudhary, Lok Sabha Member of Parliament from Pali, Rajasthan, received the Sansad Ratna Award for the fourth time. He is also the Chairman of the Joint Parliamentary Committee on One Nation, One Election.
Detailed Explanation:
The 16th Sansad Ratna Awards 2026 were presented in New Delhi to recognise outstanding parliamentary performance based on measurable indicators up to the Budget Session 2026.
12 individual Members of Parliament and 4 Parliamentary Committees were selected for the Sansad Ratna Awards 2026.
The award categories included 10 Lok Sabha Members of Parliament, 2 Rajya Sabha Members of Parliament and 4 Parliamentary Standing Committees.
P.P. Chaudhary, Lok Sabha Member of Parliament from Pali, Rajasthan, received the Sansad Ratna Award for the fourth time. He is also the Chairman of the Joint Parliamentary Committee on One Nation, One Election.
Jagdambika Pal, Nishikant Dubey and Dr. Shrikant Eknath Shinde, among others, were recognised among the Lok Sabha awardees.
Dr. Medha Vishram Kulkarni and Narhari Amin were among the Rajya Sabha awardees.
The Parliamentary Standing Committees on Agriculture; Finance; Rural Development and Panchayati Raj; and Coal and Mines were also honoured.
15) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
Odisha Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi visited the United Arab Emirates to attract investments and strengthen Odisha’s trade and business ties with the United Arab Emirates.
The Odisha Government signed a Memorandum of Understanding with International Holding Company of the United Arab Emirates and the Adani Group to explore 14 new projects with an estimated investment of ₹2,10,500 crore.
The proposed projects are expected to generate around 8,68,200 jobs.
Detailed Explanation:
Odisha Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi visited the United Arab Emirates to attract investments and strengthen Odisha’s trade and business ties with the United Arab Emirates.
The Odisha Government signed a Memorandum of Understanding with International Holding Company of the United Arab Emirates and the Adani Group to explore 14 new projects with an estimated investment of ₹2,10,500 crore.
The proposed projects are expected to generate around 8,68,200 jobs.
The projects cover metal downstream industries, slurry pipelines, critical minerals and rare earths, chemicals and petrochemical derivatives, renewable energy equipment, healthcare, industrial infrastructure, tourism, skill development and sports infrastructure.
The Odisha Government also reviewed an integrated aluminium project, with land proposed in Rayagada district for an alumina refinery and Sundargarh district for an aluminium smelter.
Odisha Government and the Indian Business and Professional Group in the United Arab Emirates signed a Memorandum of Cooperation to increase trade and investment between Odisha and the United Arab Emirates.
16) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
Digital Bharat Nidhi, under the Department of Telecommunications, Ministry of Communications, signed an agreement with the Government of Jharkhand for implementation of the Amended BharatNet Program under the State-led model.
The Union Cabinet approved the Amended BharatNet Program on 4 August 2023 to upgrade, consolidate and expand the existing BharatNet network and provide robust broadband connectivity to Gram Panchayats and villages on a demand basis.
In Jharkhand, the programme will be implemented through the new Special Purpose Vehicle, Jharkhand Digital Infrastructure Corporation Limited.
The project covers 4,395 Gram Panchayats, including the upgradation of 4,387 Gram Panchayats from linear topology to ring topology for improved network resilience and the inclusion of 8 newly created Gram Panchayats.
Detailed Explanation:
Digital Bharat Nidhi, under the Department of Telecommunications, Ministry of Communications, signed an agreement with the Government of Jharkhand for implementation of the Amended BharatNet Program under the State-led model.
The agreement was signed between Digital Bharat Nidhi, Department of Telecommunications; Government of Jharkhand; Jharkhand Digital Infrastructure Corporation Limited; Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited; and Jharkhand Communication Network Limited.
The agreement aims to strengthen rural digital infrastructure, last-mile connectivity and inclusive digital growth in Jharkhand.
The Union Cabinet approved the Amended BharatNet Program on 4 August 2023 to upgrade, consolidate and expand the existing BharatNet network and provide robust broadband connectivity to Gram Panchayats and villages on a demand basis.
In Jharkhand, the programme will be implemented through the new Special Purpose Vehicle, Jharkhand Digital Infrastructure Corporation Limited.
The project covers 4,395 Gram Panchayats, including the upgradation of 4,387 Gram Panchayats from linear topology to ring topology for improved network resilience and the inclusion of 8 newly created Gram Panchayats.
26,777 villages will receive connectivity on a demand basis to strengthen last-mile broadband connectivity.
The Government of India has allocated ₹1,684 crore for implementation of the programme in Jharkhand.
17) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Institute of Teaching and Research in Ayurveda (ITRA), Jamnagar, an Institute of National Importance under the Ministry of AYUSH, and Heartfulness Institute signed a five-year Memorandum of Understanding to strengthen cooperation in Ayurveda, integrative healthcare, education, research, training and environmental sustainability.
The agreement was signed in the presence of Prataprao Ganpatrao Jadhav, Union Minister of State (Independent Charge), Ministry of AYUSH.
The partnership combines Heartfulness Institute’s expertise in wellness, yoga, meditation and environmental conservation with ITRA’s expertise in Ayurveda education, research and healthcare.
Detailed Explanation:
Institute of Teaching and Research in Ayurveda (ITRA), Jamnagar, an Institute of National Importance under the Ministry of AYUSH, and Heartfulness Institute signed a five-year Memorandum of Understanding to strengthen cooperation in Ayurveda, integrative healthcare, education, research, training and environmental sustainability.
The agreement was signed in the presence of Prataprao Ganpatrao Jadhav, Union Minister of State (Independent Charge), Ministry of AYUSH.
The partnership combines Heartfulness Institute’s expertise in wellness, yoga, meditation and environmental conservation with ITRA’s expertise in Ayurveda education, research and healthcare.
The institutions will undertake joint research projects in Ayurveda and complementary and integrative health, including wellness, disease prevention and disease management.
They will collaborate on national and international research proposals, sponsored research, capacity-building programmes and skill-development initiatives.
The partnership will include workshops, continuing medical education programmes, certificate and diploma courses, conferences, seminars, symposiums, expos and exhibitions.
Student and faculty exchange programmes will provide opportunities for students, researchers and academicians to share knowledge and access academic and research facilities.
Heartfulness Institute will provide technical support to ITRA for developing biodiversity and green zones across its campus and operations.
18) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
The three-day Table Top Exercise (TTX) under the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) concluded on 11 September 2026 at the Eastern Naval Command (ENC), Visakhapatnam.
The exercise was conducted from 9–11 September 2026 and was hosted by the Indian Navy.
The main theme of the exercise was “Coordinated Response to Illicit Maritime Activities in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR)”.
The exercise began with the opening address by Rear Admiral Manoj Jha, Chief Staff Officer (Operations), Eastern Naval Command.
Detailed Explanation:
The three-day Table Top Exercise (TTX) under the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) concluded on 11 September 2026 at the Eastern Naval Command (ENC), Visakhapatnam.
The exercise was conducted from 9–11 September 2026 and was hosted by the Indian Navy.
The main theme of the exercise was “Coordinated Response to Illicit Maritime Activities in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR)”.
The exercise began with the opening address by Rear Admiral Manoj Jha, Chief Staff Officer (Operations), Eastern Naval Command.
A Table Top Exercise (TTX) is a simulated maritime security and defence exercise in which commanders and security delegations rehearse joint protocols, tabletop war games and coordinated responses without deploying actual assets at sea.
Delegations and maritime security experts from CSC member states and observer nations participated in simulated operational scenarios for more than 72 hours.
19) Answer: E
Short Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved ICICI Prudential Asset Management Company (AMC) to acquire an aggregate stake of up to 9.95% in CSB Bank, DCB Bank, Kotak Mahindra Bank and AU Small Finance Bank.
The 9.95% acquisition limit applies to the paid-up share capital or voting rights of each respective bank.
The approved holding includes investments made through ICICI Prudential Mutual Fund schemes, Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) managed by the AMC and its Portfolio Management Services (PMS) clients.
Detailed Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved ICICI Prudential Asset Management Company (AMC) to acquire an aggregate stake of up to 9.95% in CSB Bank, DCB Bank, Kotak Mahindra Bank and AU Small Finance Bank.
The 9.95% acquisition limit applies to the paid-up share capital or voting rights of each respective bank.
The approved holding includes investments made through ICICI Prudential Mutual Fund schemes, Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) managed by the AMC and its Portfolio Management Services (PMS) clients.
The RBI issued the approvals on 8 September 2026 under the RBI (Commercial Banks – Acquisition and Holding of Shares or Voting Rights) Directions, 2025.
ICICI Prudential AMC has one year from the date of RBI approval to complete the proposed acquisitions; otherwise, the approval will stand cancelled.
The proposed acquisitions must comply with the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, RBI directions, FEMA, 1999, SEBI regulations and other applicable laws.
RNFI Services Ltd has received in-principle authorisation from RBI to operate as a Payment Aggregator – Physical (PA-P).
20) Answer: A
Lindy Cameron, currently the British High Commissioner to India, has been appointed as the new Permanent Under-Secretary (PUS) of the UK’s Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Office (FCDO).
Cameron will take charge of the FCDO in October 2026 and is expected to serve as Permanent Under-Secretary for at least five years.
She will become the first woman to hold the top Permanent Under-Secretary-level civil service post at the British Foreign Office, marking a significant milestone for women in British diplomacy.
21) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
India’s Dhruva Space Private Limited and France’s Safran Space have signed contracts worth more than €5 million for a larger project involving the development and deployment of 275 satellites.
The collaboration is also linked to technologies supporting India’s planned Space-Based Surveillance Phase-III (SBS-III) constellation of 52 satellites.
The SBS-III project aims to provide real-time, all-weather surveillance and intelligence along India’s borders and the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
The SBS-III project was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) in October 2024 with an allocated budget of ₹26,968 crore.
Detailed Explanation:
India’s Dhruva Space Private Limited and France’s Safran Space have signed contracts worth more than €5 million for a larger project involving the development and deployment of 275 satellites.
The collaboration is also linked to technologies supporting India’s planned Space-Based Surveillance Phase-III (SBS-III) constellation of 52 satellites.
The SBS-III project aims to provide real-time, all-weather surveillance and intelligence along India’s borders and the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
The SBS-III project was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) in October 2024 with an allocated budget of ₹26,968 crore.
The planned 52 SBS-III satellites are expected to be deployed between 2026 and 2030.
Of the 52 satellites, 21 satellites will be built by ISRO, while the remaining 31 satellites will be developed by Indian private-sector companies.
Under the Safran–Dhruva collaboration, Dhruva Space will supply communication systems, inertial navigation units, optical payloads and ground stations for the SBS-III project.
The larger 275-satellite project is connected with an International Telecommunication Union (ITU) filing made by Dhruva Space.
22) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
Scientists from ICAR–National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI), Karnal and G.B. Pant University of Agriculture and Technology, Pantnagar, produced a healthy female calf of Uttarakhand’s indigenous Badri cattle breed using OPU-IVF technology.
The Badri calf was born on 11 September 2026 at an academic dairy farm.
The embryo was developed through Ovum Pick-Up (OPU) and In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) and implanted into a Sahiwal cow, which acted as a surrogate mother.
OPU involves the ultrasound-guided collection of oocytes (egg cells) from selected Badri donor cows.
Detailed Explanation:
Scientists from ICAR–National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI), Karnal and G.B. Pant University of Agriculture and Technology, Pantnagar produced a healthy female calf of Uttarakhand’s indigenous Badri cattle breed using OPU-IVF technology.
The Badri calf was born on 11 September 2026 at an academic dairy farm.
The embryo was developed through Ovum Pick-Up (OPU) and In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) and implanted into a Sahiwal cow, which acted as a surrogate mother.
OPU involves the ultrasound-guided collection of oocytes (egg cells) from selected Badri donor cows.
The collected oocytes were fertilised in a laboratory using semen from a Badri bull supplied through the Uttarakhand Livestock Development Board.
The resulting embryos were transferred into surrogate cows after the required embryo maturation period.
The project began in 2023 with funding from the Uttarakhand Biotechnology Council.
The main objective of the project is to conserve, preserve and rapidly multiply the indigenous Badri cattle breed.
A second surrogate cow was expected to give birth to another Badri calf within 5–7 days of the first birth.
23) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) is expanding into AI infrastructure through its subsidiary HyperVault AI Data Center Ltd.
HyperVault AI Data Center Ltd has secured 264 acres of land in Hyderabad, Telangana, to develop an AI-focused data centre campus.
The proposed campus will have a capacity of up to 1 GW (Gigawatt), making it one of the major planned AI-computing infrastructure projects in India.
HyperVault and its partners plan to invest up to ₹70,000 crore in building and operating the AI data centre campus.
Detailed Explanation:
Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) is expanding into AI infrastructure through its subsidiary HyperVault AI Data Center Ltd.
HyperVault AI Data Center Ltd has secured 264 acres of land in Hyderabad, Telangana, to develop an AI-focused data centre campus.
The proposed campus will have a capacity of up to 1 GW (Gigawatt), making it one of the major planned AI-computing infrastructure projects in India.
HyperVault and its partners plan to invest up to ₹70,000 crore in building and operating the AI data centre campus.
The campus will be designed for frontier AI companies and hyperscalers, with high-density GPU infrastructure.
The AI infrastructure will support AI training, AI inference, and advanced computing workloads.
The project will be developed in phases, based on customer demand and evolving technology requirements.
At full capacity, the facility is expected to become one of the largest and most advanced AI infrastructure campuses in India.
24) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
Alexander Zverev of Germany defeated Ben Shelton of the United States 6-3, 7-6(2), 5-7, 6-2 to win his first United States Open men’s singles title in New York.
The victory helped Zverev overcome the disappointment of his 2020 United States Open final defeat, when he lost to Dominic Thiem after leading by two sets and serving for the championship.
Zverev’s unusual reaction after winning the final point became a notable moment, as he initially did not realise that he had won the championship before celebrating after the crowd’s reaction.
Detailed Explanation:
Alexander Zverev of Germany defeated Ben Shelton of the United States 6-3, 7-6(2), 5-7, 6-2 to win his first United States Open men’s singles title in New York.
The victory helped Zverev overcome the disappointment of his 2020 United States Open final defeat, when he lost to Dominic Thiem after leading by two sets and serving for the championship.
Zverev’s unusual reaction after winning the final point became a notable moment, as he initially did not realise that he had won the championship before celebrating after the crowd’s reaction.
The victory completed a remarkable 2026 Grand Slam season for Zverev. He had earlier:
Won the French Open.
Reached the Wimbledon final.
Won his second Grand Slam title at the United States Open.
Zverev finished the 2026 season with a 25-2 win-loss record in Grand Slam matches.
He received $5.5 million in prize money for winning the United States Open.
For Ben Shelton, the defeat extended the wait for an American men’s Grand Slam singles champion.
25) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
India defeated Sri Lanka by 72 runs in the Women’s Asia Cup 2026 final in Dubai to win the title for a record-extending eighth time.
The victory also helped India avenge its defeat to Sri Lanka in the 2024 final.
India posted 183/5 after openers Shafali Verma and Smriti Mandhana recorded a 129-run partnership, the highest opening partnership for India in the tournament.
Shree Charani was India’s leading bowler with 4 wickets, while Deepti Sharma claimed 3 wickets.
Shafali Verma was named Player of the Match for her match-winning contribution.
Detailed Explanation:
India defeated Sri Lanka by 72 runs in the Women’s Asia Cup 2026 final in Dubai to win the title for a record-extending eighth time.
The victory also helped India avenge its defeat to Sri Lanka in the 2024 final.
This was India’s sixth victory over Sri Lanka in a Women’s Asia Cup final across the One Day International and Twenty20 formats, including the 2004 edition, when India defeated Sri Lanka 5-0 in the two-team tournament.
India posted 183/5 after openers Shafali Verma and Smriti Mandhana recorded a 129-run partnership, the highest opening partnership for India in the tournament.
Sri Lanka were bowled out for 111 runs in 19.4 overs during their chase.
Shree Charani was India’s leading bowler with 4 wickets, while Deepti Sharma claimed 3 wickets.
Shafali Verma was named Player of the Match for her match-winning contribution.
India’s victory was built on explosive opening batting and disciplined bowling, with the Shafali Verma–Smriti Mandhana partnership providing the foundation and Shree Charani and Deepti Sharma controlling the chase.
26) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
India’s men’s and women’s hockey teams won their respective Junior Asia Cup titles at Moqi, China.
The Indian Junior Men’s Hockey Team defeated South Korea 4-1 in the final to successfully defend its title.
Ajeet Yadav, Anmol Ekka, Prabhdeep Singh and Ashu Maurya scored for India in the men’s final.
Sanika Chandrakant Mane scored the only goal of the match in the 17th minute.
Detailed Explanation:
India’s men’s and women’s hockey teams won their respective Junior Asia Cup titles at Moqi, China.
The Indian Junior Men’s Hockey Team defeated South Korea 4-1 in the final to successfully defend its title.
Ajeet Yadav, Anmol Ekka, Prabhdeep Singh and Ashu Maurya scored for India in the men’s final.
With this victory, India became the first team in the history of the tournament to win the Men’s Junior Asia Cup four times.
India had previously won the Men’s Junior Asia Cup in 2015, 2023 and 2024.
The Indian Junior Women’s Hockey Team defeated hosts China 1-0 in the final to clinch the title.
Sanika Chandrakant Mane scored the only goal of the match in the 17th minute.
The victory completed a hat-trick of Junior Asia Cup titles for the Indian women’s team, which had earlier won the tournament in 2023 and 2024.
27) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Elena Rybakina of Kazakhstan defeated Aryna Sabalenka of Belarus 6-4, 5-7, 6-2 in the women’s singles final at Arthur Ashe Stadium, New York to win the 2026 United States Open title.
This is Elena Rybakina’s first United States Open title and her third Grand Slam championship.
Rybakina had earlier won the 2026 Australian Open, making it her second Grand Slam title of the year.
With this victory, Elena Rybakina became the new Women’s Tennis Association (WTA) World No. 1, replacing Aryna Sabalenka.
Detailed Explanation:
Elena Rybakina of Kazakhstan defeated Aryna Sabalenka of Belarus 6-4, 5-7, 6-2 in the women’s singles final at Arthur Ashe Stadium, New York to win the 2026 United States Open title.
This is Elena Rybakina’s first United States Open title and her third Grand Slam championship.
Rybakina had earlier won the 2026 Australian Open, making it her second Grand Slam title of the year.
With this victory, Elena Rybakina became the new Women’s Tennis Association (WTA) World No. 1, replacing Aryna Sabalenka.
Christian Harrison of the United States and Neal Skupski of Britain won the men’s doubles title, defeating Kevin Krawietz and Tim Puetz of Germany.
Harrison and Skupski won the men’s double final 6-4, 7-6 to claim their second Grand Slam title of 2026, following their Australian Open victory in January.
The 2026 United States Open men’s singles final will be contested between Alexander Zverev of Germany, ranked World No. 2, and Ben Shelton of the United States.
28) Answer: C
Hindi Diwas is observed annually on 14 September to commemorate the adoption of Hindi as an official language of the Union of India.
Article 343 of the Constitution of India provides that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in the Devanagari script.
Hindi is one of the 22 languages included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
29) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
The New Development Bank (NDB) is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS countries — Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
The main objective of NDB is to mobilise resources and finance infrastructure and sustainable-development projects in emerging markets and developing countries (EMDCs).
Under its current General Strategy, NDB has set a target of 30% of financing for non-sovereign operations.
Detailed Explanation:
The New Development Bank (NDB) is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS countries — Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
The main objective of NDB is to mobilise resources and finance infrastructure and sustainable-development projects in emerging markets and developing countries (EMDCs).
NDB supports economic growth, environmental sustainability and social development in its member countries.
NDB is increasingly involved in multicurrency lending through currency swaps and is expanding its non-sovereign operations.
NDB provides financing to the private sector through direct lending, public-private partnerships (PPPs) and blended finance.
Under its current General Strategy, NDB has set a target of 30% of financing for non-sovereign operations.
30) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
UPI is currently (As of Sep 2026) accepted or being deployed in 11 countries, reflecting the growing global reach of India’s digital-payment infrastructure.
Countries mentioned in connection with UPI’s international expansion include France, Qatar, Bhutan, Cambodia, Singapore, Sri Lanka and Mauritius, along with the UAE.
Indian fintech companies are increasingly expanding into international markets, particularly in Southeast Asia and West Asia.
Detailed Explanation:
UPI is currently (As of Sep 2026) accepted or being deployed in 11 countries, reflecting the growing global reach of India’s digital-payment infrastructure.
Countries mentioned in connection with UPI’s international expansion include France, Qatar, Bhutan, Cambodia, Singapore, Sri Lanka and Mauritius, along with the UAE.
Indian fintech companies are increasingly expanding into international markets, particularly in Southeast Asia and West Asia.
Paytm is also expanding its international presence in countries such as Indonesia and Luxembourg through its international operations.
Paytm has an international arm called Paytm Arab Payments (PAPL), established in partnership with Abbar Global Opportunities Holdings (AGOHL).
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