Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2025 of 13th & 14th July 2025. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2025 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.

 

Start Quiz

 

1) According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed a penalty of ₹2.70 lakh on Shriram Finance Ltd for violating provisions under which act?

(a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949

(b) FEMA, 1999

(c) RBI (Digital Lending) Directions, 2025

(d) SARFAESI Act, 2002

(e) Companies Act, 2013

2) In July 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released draft norms to ease the closure of shipping bills in the Export Data Processing and Monitoring System (EDPMS). As per the draft, what is the maximum value per shipping bill eligible for relaxed reconciliation procedures?

(a) ₹1 lakh

(b) ₹5 lakh

(c) ₹20 lakh

(d) ₹15 lakh

(e) ₹10 lakh

3) In 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) permitted voluntary pledging of gold and silver jewellery as collateral for loans in which of the following sectors?

(a) Education and housing

(b) Agriculture and small business

(c) Export finance and logistics

(d) Healthcare and infrastructure

(e) Personal and automobile finance

4) As per the July 2025 RBI amendment to Basel III Capital Regulations, which new credit rating agency is now recognized for assigning risk weights to non-resident corporates in IFSCs?

(a) India Ratings and Research

(b) ICRA Limited

(c) Brickwork Ratings

(d) CareEdge Global IFSC Limited

(e) Infomerics Valuation and Rating Pvt. Ltd

5) Which UPI app retained the top position in terms of transaction volume in June 2025?

(a) Google Pay

(b) PhonePe

(c) Paytm

(d) Navi

(e) Super.money

6) Recently Reserve Bank of India (RBI) updated and consolidated its Citizen’s Charter, merging services for regulated institutions and the public into a single list. How many total services are now included in RBI’s consolidated Citizen’s Charter?

(a) 191

(b) 204

(c) 198

(d) 215

(e) 173

7) What recent step has ICICI Prudential AMC taken toward launching its Initial Public Offering (IPO)?

(a) Listed shares on BSE

(b) Acquired another mutual fund

(c) Filed the Draft Red Herring Prospectus (DRHP) with SEBI

(d) Merged with HDFC AMC

(e) Launched a new mutual fund scheme

8) How much funding did Jumbotail raise in its Series D round?

(a) $80 million

(b) $120 million

(c) $100 million

(d) $150 million

(e) $200 million

9) Which fintech firm launched India’s first UPI-powered physical bank branch?

(a) PhonePe

(b) Razorpay

(c) Paytm

(d) Slice

(e) BharatPe

10) What is the coupon rate of the Floating Rate Savings Bonds, 2020 (Taxable) [FRSB 2020 (T)] for the period July 1 to December 31, 2025?

(a) 7.70%

(b) 8.05%

(c) 8.35%

(d) 7.50%

(e) 8.25%

11) What recent step has the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) taken regarding Digital Lending Apps (DLAs)?

(a) Banned all unregulated DLAs

(b) Published a list of legal DLAs on its website

(c) Launched its own DLA

(d) Signed MoUs with private DLAs

(e) Imposed a blanket moratorium on DLA operations

12) What cultural festival has been officially recognized as a state festival by the Maharashtra government in 2025?

(a) Gudi Padwa

(b) Diwali

(c) Sarvajanik Ganeshotsav

(d) Makar Sankranti

(e) Shiv Jayanti

13) Recently, Assam Launched ‘Gajah Mitra’ Scheme to Mitigate Human–Elephant Conflicts. Which of the following food crops will be cultivated under the initiative to create elephant forage zones?

(a) Banana and sugarcane

(b) Bamboo and Napier grass

(c) Paddy and maize

(d) Jute and mustard

(e) Teak and acacia

14) When will India’s first Global Conference on Manuscript Heritage be held?

(a) August 15–17, 2025

(b) September 5–7, 2025

(c) September 11–13, 2025

(d) October 2–4, 2025

(e) November 10–12, 2025

15) When will Uttarakhand celebrate the Harela Festival in 2025?

(a) July 16

(b) July 15

(c) July 19

(d) July 17

(e) July 18

16) As per the news, Minister of State for Finance, Pankaj Chaudhary, inaugurated the first-ever Trade Facilitation Conference 2025 in New Delhi, under the theme “Scientific Excellence for Seamless Trade.” Which organisations hosted the Trade Facilitation Conference 2025?

(a) NITI Aayog and FICCI

(b) CRCL and CBIC

(c) BIS and RBI

(d) CBIC and DGFT

(e) NITI Aayog and CBEC

17) Which police station became the first in India to receive IS/ISO 9001:2015 certification?

(a) Kozhikode Police Station

(b) Arthunkal Police Station

(c) Kollam Town Police Station

(d) Malappuram Central Police Station

(e) Thiruvananthapuram City Police Station

18) What is the total financial outlay of the Employment-Linked Incentive (ELI) scheme approved under Union Budget 2024–25?

(a) ₹50,000 crore

(b) ₹75,000 crore

(c) ₹1 lakh crore

(d) ₹1.5 lakh crore

(e) ₹2 lakh crore

19) What is the maximum subsidy offered per electric truck under the PM E-DRIVE programme?

(a) ₹9.6 lakh

(b) ₹7.5 lakh

(c) ₹11 lakh

(d) ₹10 lakh

(e) ₹12 lakh

20) Where will the Seventh Regional Committee Meeting (RCM) of the International Solar Alliance for the Asia and Pacific region be held?

(a) Manila, Philippines

(b) New Delhi, India

(c) Jakarta, Indonesia

(d) Colombo, Sri Lanka

(e) Bangkok, Thailand

21) As per the report,  Kumar Mangalam Birla was recently appointed to which two bodies of the U.S.-India Strategic Partnership Forum (USISPF)?

(a) Advisory Council and Innovation Task Force

(b) Board of Directors and Executive Committee

(c) Strategic Council and Regulatory Affairs Committee

(d) Investment Board and Policy Review Council

(e) Ethics Committee and Economic Review Panel

22) The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) has approved the extension of Union Home Secretary Govind Mohan’s tenure till August 22, 2026. Who did Govind Mohan succeed as Union Home Secretary?

(a) T.V. Somanathan

(b) Ajay Kumar Bhalla

(c) Rajiv Gauba

(d) Sanjay Malhotra

(e) Arun Goel

23) From which Indian state does Sukanya Sonowal has been selected as a Commonwealth Youth Peace Ambassador?

(a) Manipur

(b) Meghalaya

(c) Sikkim

(d) Nagaland

(e) Assam

24) Recently, Varsha Deshpande received the 2025 United Nations Population Award in which category?

(a) Institutional

(b) National Government

(c) NGO

(d) Individual

(e) Corporate

25) In July 2025, Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Air Force (IAF) successfully conducted a flight-test. What type of missile is the Astra?

(a) Surface-to-Surface Ballistic Missile

(b) Anti-Tank Guided Missile

(c) Submarine-Launched Cruise Missile

(d) Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM)

(e) Surface-to-Air Missile

26) What is the name of the Indian Army operation launched to secure the Amarnath Yatra in 2025?

(a) Operation Rakshak

(b) Operation Shiva

(c) Operation Amarnath

(d) Operation Yodha

(e) Operation Trinetra

27) Which organization signed a three-year MoU with the Handball Association of India (HAI) to promote handball nationwide?

(a) All India Radio

(b) Ministry of Sports

(c) Prasar Bharati

(d) Indian Olympic Association

(e) Sports Authority of India

28) Recently, Poland’s Iga Swiatek won her first Wimbledon title. Who did Iga Swiatek defeat in the Wimbledon 2025 final?

(a) Aryna Sabalenka

(b) Amanda Anisimova

(c) Ons Jabeur

(d) Jessica Pegula

(e) Maria Sakkari

29) At which international chess event did Harikrishnan A. Ra. earn his final GrandMaster norm?

(a) Biel Chess Festival

(b) La Plagne International Chess Festival

(c) Tata Steel Chess Tournament

(d) Sharjah Masters

(e) Aeroflot Open

30) Which country secured its debut qualification for the ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2026 through the Europe Qualifiers?

(a) Netherlands

(b) Scotland

(c) France

(d) Italy

(e) Germany

Answers :

1) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed a monetary penalty of ₹2.70 lakh on Shriram Finance Limited (SFL) for violating provisions of the RBI (Digital Lending) Directions, 2025.

The penalty on SFL was imposed under the powers granted by Section 58G and Section 58B of the RBI Act, 1934.

RBI clarified that this penalty is for regulatory non-compliance and does not affect the validity of any transactions or agreements between Shriram Finance and its customers.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed a monetary penalty of ₹2.70 lakh on Shriram Finance Limited (SFL) for violating provisions of the RBI (Digital Lending) Directions, 2025.

The penalty on SFL was imposed under the powers granted by Section 58G and Section 58B of the RBI Act, 1934.

RBI clarified that this penalty is for regulatory non-compliance and does not affect the validity of any transactions or agreements between Shriram Finance and its customers.

Shriram Finance Limited is one of India’s largest retail non-banking financial companies (NBFCs).

Separately, RBI imposed a monetary penalty of ₹4.88 lakh on HDFC Bank Limited.

The penalty on HDFC Bank was imposed under Section 11(3) of the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999.

The violation involved granting a term loan to a client without adherence to FEMA norms.

2) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released draft norms on July 11, 2025 for the Closure of Shipping Bills in the Export Data Processing and Monitoring System (EDPMS).

As per the draft guidelines, Authorised Dealer Category – I banks (AD banks) can follow a relaxed procedure for shipping bills valued up to ₹10 lakh (or equivalent per bill).

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released draft norms on July 11, 2025 for the Closure of Shipping Bills in the Export Data Processing and Monitoring System (EDPMS).

The move aims to resolve regulatory compliance issues related to reconciliation of small-value exports in the EDPMS.

The EDPMS was introduced in February 2014 by the RBI to monitor realisation of export proceeds.

Due to a significant increase in export transactions, reconciliation of each shipping bill with payment has become challenging.

As per the draft guidelines, Authorised Dealer Category – I banks (AD banks) can follow a relaxed procedure for shipping bills valued up to ₹10 lakh (or equivalent per bill).

No penalties shall be imposed by banks for delays in compliance under this relaxation.

3) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has allowed voluntary pledging of gold and silver jewellery as collateral for agriculture and small business loans.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has allowed voluntary pledging of gold and silver jewellery as collateral for agriculture and small business loans.

The norms apply to:All commercial banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Small Finance Banks (SFBs), State and District Cooperative Banks

This comes after the collateral-free loan limit for farmers was increased from ₹1.6 lakh to ₹2 lakh per borrower in December 2024.

Loans up to ₹10 lakh to Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) must be given without collateral.

The goal is to support farmers amid rising input costs and inflation, making loans for farming and allied activities like dairy, poultry, and fisheries easier to access

Loan-to-Value (LTV) Ratio for Gold LoansGeneral cap: 75% LTV for all lenders (e.g., ₹100 worth of gold → max loan = ₹75)

4) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has amended Basel III Capital Regulations to expand credit rating options for Scheduled Commercial Banks (excluding Local Area Banks, Payments Banks, and Regional Rural Banks).

The RBI has defined a rating-risk weight mapping for CareEdge Global IFSC Ltd as follows:

AAA – 20% risk weight

AA – 30%

A – 50%

BBB – 100%

BB & below – 150%

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has amended Basel III Capital Regulations to expand credit rating options for Scheduled Commercial Banks (excluding Local Area Banks, Payments Banks, and Regional Rural Banks).

Banks are now permitted to use credit ratings from M/s CareEdge Global IFSC Limited for assigning risk weights to their claims on non-resident corporates located in International Financial Services Centres (IFSC).

Earlier, banks could only use ratings from three international agencies: Fitch, Moody’s, and Standard & Poor’s.

The RBI has defined a rating-risk weight mapping for CareEdge Global IFSC Ltd as follows:

AAA – 20% risk weight

AA – 30%

A – 50%

BBB – 100%

BB & below – 150%

5) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

PhonePe retained its top position on the UPI leaderboard, processing over 8.54 billion transactions and holding a 46.46% market share, as per National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) data.

Google Pay processed over 6.54 billion transactions, with a 35.56% market share.

Detailed Explanation:

PhonePe retained its top position on the UPI leaderboard, processing over 8.54 billion transactions and holding a 46.46% market share, as per National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) data.

Google Pay processed over 6.54 billion transactions, with a 35.56% market share.

Paytm processed 1.26 billion transactions, holding a 6.90% market share.

Total UPI transactions in June 2025 were 18.39 billion, showing a slight 1.5% decline compared to 18.67 billion in May 2025.

Newer Third-Party Application Providers (TPAPs) like:

Navi processed 406.01 million transactions with a 2.21% market share (TPAP approval in 2023).

Super.money processed 218.96 million transactions, with a 1.19% market share (TPAP approval in 2024).

State-wise UPI volume contributions in June:

Maharashtra: 8.8%

Karnataka: 5.61%

Uttar Pradesh: 5.15%

6) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has updated and consolidated its Citizen’s Charter, merging services for regulated institutions and the public into a single list of 204 services.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has updated and consolidated its Citizen’s Charter, merging services for regulated institutions and the public into a single list of 204 services.

The new charter came into effect from July 1, 2025, aiming to bring banking services closer and faster to common citizens.

The Citizen’s Charter is an open document detailing the services provided by RBI and the timeframe for their delivery.

It includes both regulatory approvals for banks and financial institutions and services for the public, such as:Lodging complaints, Claiming unclaimed deposits, Applications under the Right to Information (RTI) Act

Previously, RBI services were split into two parts:133 services under ‘Regulatory Approvals’, 58 services under ‘Citizen’s Charter’

The revision has also shortened the time period for 11 services, directly benefiting consumers.

7) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

ICICI Prudential Asset Management Company (AMC), India’s second-largest mutual fund manager by assets, has filed its Draft Red Herring Prospectus (DRHP) with SEBI to raise funds via an Initial Public Offering (IPO).

Detailed Explanation:

ICICI Prudential Asset Management Company (AMC), India’s second-largest mutual fund manager by assets, has filed its Draft Red Herring Prospectus (DRHP) with SEBI to raise funds via an Initial Public Offering (IPO).

The company is a joint venture between ICICI Bank and British insurer Prudential.

The IPO will be an Offer for Sale (OFS) of 1.76 crore shares by promoter Prudential, representing a 10% stake.

The IPO size is expected to be around ₹10,000 crore, according to investment bankers.

ICICI Bank holds a 51% stake in the AMC, while Prudential owns 49%.

Nimesh Shah is the Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of ICICI Prudential AMC.

DRHP is a preliminary document submitted to SEBI when a company plans to raise funds through an IPO.

8) Answer: B

Jumbotail, a B2B ecommerce platform, has raised $120 million (around ₹1,028 crore) in its Series D funding round.

The funding round was led by SC Ventures, the investment arm of Standard Chartered.

Jumbotail has completed the acquisition of Solv India.

The fresh capital infusion has pushed Jumbotail’s valuation beyond $1 billion, making it India’s fifth unicorn of 2025.

Other unicorns in 2025 include Netradyne, Porter, Drools, and Fireflies AI.

9) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

Fintech firm Slice has launched India’s first UPI-powered physical bank branch in Koramangala, Bengaluru.

The branch offers a fully digital banking experience, including:UPI-integrated ATMs, Instant account opening, Cash transactions without debit cards

Located on 80 Feet Road, a key area in Bengaluru’s startup ecosystem.

Customers can deposit and withdraw cash using UPI, replacing the need for traditional debit cards.

Detailed Explanation:

Fintech firm Slice has launched India’s first UPI-powered physical bank branch in Koramangala, Bengaluru.

The branch offers a fully digital banking experience, including:UPI-integrated ATMs, Instant account opening, Cash transactions without debit cards

Located on 80 Feet Road, a key area in Bengaluru’s startup ecosystem.

Customers can deposit and withdraw cash using UPI, replacing the need for traditional debit cards.

Slice has also launched a UPI-linked credit card, which:Has no annual or joining fees, Allows users to make QR code payments from their credit line

The branch is a pilot project for a potential nationwide rollout of UPI-based banking formats.

India’s overseas financial assets saw a significant rise in FY 2024–25, driven primarily by:Higher overseas direct investments, Increased currency and deposits, A strong build-up of reserve assets

10) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The coupon rate of Floating Rate Savings Bonds, 2020 (Taxable) [FRSB 2020 (T)] is reset every six months, based on 35 basis points above the National Savings Certificate (NSC) rate.

For the period July 1, 2025 to December 31, 2025, the coupon rate remains at 8.05% (7.70% NSC rate + 0.35% spread), unchanged from the previous half-year.

Detailed Explanation:

The coupon rate of Floating Rate Savings Bonds, 2020 (Taxable) [FRSB 2020 (T)] is reset every six months, based on 35 basis points above the National Savings Certificate (NSC) rate.

For the period July 1, 2025 to December 31, 2025, the coupon rate remains at 8.05% (7.70% NSC rate + 0.35% spread), unchanged from the previous half-year.

Interest is payable on January 1, 2026, and cannot be received on a cumulative basis.

Bonds are issued for a minimum of ₹1,000 (face value) and in multiples thereof, with no maximum investment limit.

Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) are not eligible to invest in these bonds.

Premature withdrawal is not permitted, except for senior citizens under specific conditions:

Age 60 to 70: Lock-in period of 6 years

Age 70 to 80: Lock-in period of 5 years

Age 80 and above: Lock-in period of 4 years

Penalty applies on premature withdrawal by senior citizens.

Interest is reset semi-annually and is due on July 1 and January 1 each year.

11) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has published a list of legal Digital Lending Apps (DLAs) on its official website.

The list helps consumers verify if a digital lending app is associated with a regulated entity.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has published a list of legal Digital Lending Apps (DLAs) on its official website.

The list helps consumers verify if a digital lending app is associated with a regulated entity.

The list includes around 1,600 DLAs, featuring major fintech platforms such as Google Pay, BharatPe, Axio, LendingKart, Navi, Paytm, and PhonePe.

This step is part of RBI’s 2023 digital lending guidelines, which aimed to ensure transparency and public access to verified digital lending platforms.

In May 2024, RBI directed all regulated entities to report their DLAs via the centralised information management system portal.

The list will be updated automatically based on entries submitted through the portal, with no further validation by RBI.

12) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Maharashtra government has officially recognised Sarvajanik Ganeshotsav (Public Ganesh Festival) as a state festival, ensuring government support and funding for its widespread celebration across the state.

The announcement was made by Cultural Affairs Minister Ashish Shelar in the Legislative Assembly.

Detailed Explanation:

The Maharashtra government has officially recognised Sarvajanik Ganeshotsav (Public Ganesh Festival) as a state festival, ensuring government support and funding for its widespread celebration across the state.

The announcement was made by Cultural Affairs Minister Ashish Shelar in the Legislative Assembly.

Government Recognition: Sarvajanik Ganeshotsav will now receive official status as a state festival, enabling financial and logistical support from the government for public celebrations.

Support for Cultural Heritage: The move aims to preserve Maharashtra’s cultural identity and promote unity through large-scale community participation in the festival.

Historical Significance:

Initiated in 1893 by freedom fighter Lokmanya Tilak as a means to unite citizens during British rule.

13) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Assam government approved the ‘Gajah Mitra’ initiative on July 11, 2025, aiming to protect both local communities and elephant populations by creating safe habitats and employing non-violent deterrents in conflict-prone areas.

Elephant Forage Zones: Cultivation of bamboo and Napier grass — preferred elephant foods — to draw herds away from villages.

Detailed Explanation:

The Assam government approved the ‘Gajah Mitra’ initiative on July 11, 2025, aiming to protect both local communities and elephant populations by creating safe habitats and employing non-violent deterrents in conflict-prone areas.

Targeting 80 High-Risk Zones: The scheme focuses on areas with frequent human–elephant encounters, such as Nagaon, Sonitpur West, Dhanasiri, and Karbi Anglong East.

Elephant Forage Zones: Cultivation of bamboo and Napier grass — preferred elephant foods — to draw herds away from villages.

Rapid Response Teams: Specialized units will guide elephant herds back to forests using humane, non-lethal methods, reducing the need for violent interventions.

Conflict Statistics: Between 2000 and 2023, over 1,400 human and 1,209 elephant fatalities were recorded, with 626 elephant deaths attributed to electrocution from unsafe fencing.

14) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Ministry of Culture has announced that India will organise its inaugural Global Conference on Manuscript Heritage from September 11–13, 2025, at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, with the aim of preserving and sharing the country’s vast repository of ancient manuscripts.

The announcement was made on Guru Purnima, underscoring India’s reverence for its guru–śiṣya tradition.

Detailed Explanation:

The Ministry of Culture has announced that India will organise its inaugural Global Conference on Manuscript Heritage from September 11–13, 2025, at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, with the aim of preserving and sharing the country’s vast repository of ancient manuscripts.

The announcement was made on Guru Purnima, underscoring India’s reverence for its guru–śiṣya tradition.

Conference Theme & Dates: Titled “Reclaiming India’s Knowledge Legacy Through Manuscript Heritage”, the three-day event will run from September 11 to 13, 2025.

Hybrid Format & Global Reach: Over 500 delegates, including 75 renowned scholars from India and abroad, will participate both in-person and online.

Vast Manuscript Holdings: India holds more than 10 million manuscripts in diverse scripts and languages, covering philosophy, science, medicine, literature, rituals, and arts.

Tribute to Vivekananda: The September 11 start date commemorates Swami Vivekananda’s 1893 speech at the Parliament of the World’s Religions, reflecting India’s commitment to global peace and knowledge exchange

15) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Uttarakhand will celebrate the Harela festival on July 16, 2025, with a massive plantation drive, aiming to plant over 5 lakh saplings across the state.

The initiative promotes environmental conservation and hopes to set a new record, reinforcing the state’s dedication to protecting nature and Mother Earth.

Scale of Plantation: A total of 5 lakh+ saplings will be planted — 3 lakh in Garhwal and 2 lakh in Kumaon regions.

Detailed Explanation:

Uttarakhand will celebrate the Harela festival on July 16, 2025, with a massive plantation drive, aiming to plant over 5 lakh saplings across the state.

The initiative promotes environmental conservation and hopes to set a new record, reinforcing the state’s dedication to protecting nature and Mother Earth.

Scale of Plantation: A total of 5 lakh+ saplings will be planted — 3 lakh in Garhwal and 2 lakh in Kumaon regions.

Festival Themes:

“Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam” (A tree in mother’s name)

“Harela Ka Tyohar Manao, Dharti Maa Ka Rin Chukao” (Celebrate Harela, repay Earth’s debt)

Plantation Sites: Saplings will be planted in public parks, riverbanks, forests, schools, government campuses, and residential areas.

Record-Breaking Goal: The drive seeks to surpass the 2016 record of 2 lakh saplings planted in one day, underlining the state’s growing commitment to climate action.

16) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Minister of State for Finance, Pankaj Chaudhary, inaugurated the first-ever Trade Facilitation Conference 2025 in New Delhi, under the theme “Scientific Excellence for Seamless Trade.”

Organisers: The conference was organised by the Central Revenues Control Laboratory (CRCL) and the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC).

Detailed Explanation:

Minister of State for Finance, Pankaj Chaudhary, inaugurated the first-ever Trade Facilitation Conference 2025 in New Delhi, under the theme “Scientific Excellence for Seamless Trade.”

Organisers: The conference was organised by the Central Revenues Control Laboratory (CRCL) and the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC).

Theme Focus: “Scientific Excellence for Seamless Trade” emphasised reducing trade delays using modern laboratories, compliance standards, and technology-driven testing.

Minister's Address: MoS Pankaj Chaudhary highlighted the need for a modern testing framework to ensure quality, promote exports, and boost economic growth.

17) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Under the Quality Management System (QMS) standards of IS/ISO 9001:2015, Arthunkal Police Station in Alappuzha, Kerala, has been officially certified by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)—the first such recognition for any police station in India.

Detailed Explanation:

Under the Quality Management System (QMS) standards of IS/ISO 9001:2015, Arthunkal Police Station in Alappuzha, Kerala, has been officially certified by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)—the first such recognition for any police station in India.

First in the Nation: Arthunkal Police Station is the first-ever police station in India to attain IS/ISO 9001:2015 certification, highlighting its commitment to international quality standards.

Scope of Certification: Recognises excellence in crime prevention, investigation, traffic management, public grievance redressal, and overall law-enforcement services.

Award Presentation: Certificate handed over by Praveen Khanna, Deputy Director General (Standardization), BIS, to Ravada Azad Chandrashekhar, State Police Chief of Kerala.

18) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Union Cabinet approved a ₹1 lakh crore Employment-Linked Incentive (ELI) scheme under the Union Budget 2024–25, designed to create over 3.5 crore new jobs—with special emphasis on the manufacturing sector—while ensuring social security and formalisation of employment.

Eligibility Period: Applies to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027.

Detailed Explanation:

The Union Cabinet approved a ₹1 lakh crore Employment-Linked Incentive (ELI) scheme under the Union Budget 2024–25, designed to create over 3.5 crore new jobs—with special emphasis on the manufacturing sector—while ensuring social security and formalisation of employment.

Eligibility Period: Applies to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027.

Job Targets: Scheme aims for 3.5 crore new jobs, including 1.92 crore positions for first-time workers.

Employer Support: Firms receive up to ₹3,000 per new employee per month for two years; manufacturing hires can extend incentives for an additional two years.

Employee Benefit: Each new worker is granted one month’s wage (up to ₹15,000) as a direct benefit.

Launch Details: Announced by MoS Finance Ashwini Vaishnaw during a Cabinet briefing in New Delhi.

Broader Package: ELI is one of five initiatives under the Prime Minister’s ₹2 lakh crore Employment & Skill Development Package, targeting over 4 crore youth.

19) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

The Indian Government has introduced the country’s first electric truck (e-truck) subsidy scheme under the PM E-DRIVE programme, offering financial assistance of up to ₹9.6 lakh per vehicle.

Launched by Union Minister H.D. Kumaraswamy on July 12, 2025, this scheme aims to promote clean and sustainable freight transport and aligns with India’s net-zero emission target by 2070.

Detailed Explanation:

The Indian Government has introduced the country’s first electric truck (e-truck) subsidy scheme under the PM E-DRIVE programme, offering financial assistance of up to ₹9.6 lakh per vehicle.

Launched by Union Minister H.D. Kumaraswamy on July 12, 2025, this scheme aims to promote clean and sustainable freight transport and aligns with India’s net-zero emission target by 2070.

Scope of Subsidy: The scheme offers a maximum subsidy of ₹9.6 lakh per electric truck (N2 and N3 category vehicles with GVW 3.5–55 tonnes), provided as an upfront discount.

Implementation Platform: Manufacturers will be reimbursed via the PM E-DRIVE portal on a first-come, first-served basis.

Warranty Requirements:

Battery: Minimum 5 years or 5 lakh km

Vehicle and Motor: 5 years or 2.5 lakh km

Environmental Mandate: Beneficiaries must scrap old diesel trucks to qualify, supporting the removal of high-emission vehicles.

Targeted Rollout: The scheme will facilitate deployment of 5,600 electric trucks, with 1,100 in Delhi alone, under a budget of ₹100 crore.

20) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The International Solar Alliance (ISA) will host the Seventh Regional Committee Meeting (RCM) for the Asia and the Pacific Region from July 15–17, 2025 in Colombo, Sri Lanka.

The theme of the event is “Advancing Solar Cooperation Across a Region of Diversity and Opportunity.”

The RCM is chaired by the Vice President from the region, the Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka.

Detailed Explanation:

The International Solar Alliance (ISA) will host the Seventh Regional Committee Meeting (RCM) for the Asia and the Pacific Region from July 15–17, 2025 in Colombo, Sri Lanka.

The theme of the event is “Advancing Solar Cooperation Across a Region of Diversity and Opportunity.”

The RCM is chaired by the Vice President from the region, the Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka.

The meeting aims to align regional solar priorities with ISA’s evolving strategic vision.

It supports ISA member countries in:Adopting advanced solar technologies, Diversifying supply chains, Integrating emerging solutions like Green Hydrogen and energy storage

These efforts build on the ISA–Asian Development Bank (ADB) joint project on Ecosystem Readiness for Green Hydrogen, showcased at the Asia Clean Energy Forum (ACEF) 2025 in Manila, Philippines.

Discussions will include the establishment of new regional STAR Centres to enhance:Institutional capacity, Technical expertise, Support for long-term solar energy goals

The Asia and Pacific Region includes:28 Member Countries, 30 Signatory Countries, 24 Prospective Countries, totaling 54 countries engaged with ISA in the region.

21) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Kumar Mangalam Birla, Chairman of the Aditya Birla Group, has been appointed to the Board of Directors and the Executive Committee of the U.S.-India Strategic Partnership Forum (USISPF).

The Aditya Birla Group is the largest Indian greenfield investor in the United States, with investments exceeding $15 billion.

Detailed Explanation:

Kumar Mangalam Birla, Chairman of the Aditya Birla Group, has been appointed to the Board of Directors and the Executive Committee of the U.S.-India Strategic Partnership Forum (USISPF).

The Aditya Birla Group is the largest Indian greenfield investor in the United States, with investments exceeding $15 billion.

The Group has operations in 15 U.S. states across sectors such as metals, carbon black, and chemicals.

Mr. Birla was recently awarded the Global Leadership Award at the 2025 USISPF Leadership Summit in Washington, D.C.

The award recognizes his business leadership and efforts to strengthen the U.S.-India economic partnership.

22) Answer: B

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) has approved the extension of Union Home Secretary Govind Mohan’s tenure till August 22, 2026.

Govind Mohan is a 1989 batch IAS officer from the Sikkim cadre.

He was appointed as Union Home Secretary in August 2024, succeeding Ajay Kumar Bhalla, who completed his tenure on August 22, 2024.

His service extension goes beyond his superannuation date of September 30, as per Fundamental Rule (FR) 56 and Rule 16 of the All India Services Rules, 1958.

23) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

Sukanya Sonowal, from Lakhimpur district, Assam, has been selected as a Commonwealth Youth Peace Ambassador.

Detailed Explanation:

Sukanya Sonowal, from Lakhimpur district, Assam, has been selected as a Commonwealth Youth Peace Ambassador.

She is now a member of the Executive Committee of the Commonwealth Youth Peace Ambassador Network (CYPAN).

She has been appointed as the Lead – Communications & Public Relations for a two-year term (2025–2027).

Sukanya is currently a 4th-year B.Tech student at IIT Guwahati, pursuing Biosciences and Bioengineering.

CYPAN is part of the Youth Commonwealth under the Commonwealth of Nations.

24) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

Varsha Deshpande, a noted women’s rights activist from Satara, Maharashtra, was honoured with the 2025 United Nations Population Award in the individual category for her relentless efforts to prevent sex-selective abortions and promote gender equality.

Detailed Explanation:

Varsha Deshpande, a noted women’s rights activist from Satara, Maharashtra, was honoured with the 2025 United Nations Population Award in the individual category for her relentless efforts to prevent sex-selective abortions and promote gender equality.

The award was presented on World Population Day (July 11, 2025) at a special ceremony in New York.

Lifelong Advocacy: Deshpande has been a vocal advocate for reproductive rights and the protection of the girl child for over three decades.

Founder and Secretary: She founded the Dalit Mahila Vikas Mandal in 1990, working towards the upliftment of Dalit women and addressing issues related to gender-based discrimination.

25) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Air Force (IAF) successfully conducted a flight-test of the indigenous Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM) 'Astra'.

The test was conducted on July 11, 2025, from a Su-30 Mk-I aircraft off the coast of Odisha.

Detailed Explanation:

The Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Air Force (IAF) successfully conducted a flight-test of the indigenous Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM) 'Astra'.

The test was conducted on July 11, 2025, from a Su-30 Mk-I aircraft off the coast of Odisha.

Two missile launches were carried out against high-speed unmanned aerial targets at different ranges, target aspects, and launch conditions.

In both cases, the targets were destroyed with pin-point accuracy.

The missile was equipped with an indigenous Radio Frequency (RF) seeker, designed and developed by DRDO.

All subsystems, including the RF seeker, performed as expected during the test.

Flight data from the test was validated by Range Tracking instruments deployed at the Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur.

The Astra weapon system has a range of over 100 km and features a state-of-the-art guidance and navigation system.

26) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Indian Army launched Operation Shiva to secure the ongoing Amarnath Yatra with 8,500 troops and a counter-unmanned aerial system (C-UAS) grid.

The 38-day pilgrimage started on July 3 and will conclude on August 9.

The pilgrimage follows two routes: the 48 km Nunwan-Pahalgam route (Anantnag district) and the 14 km Baltal route (Ganderbal district).

Detailed Explanation:

The Indian Army launched Operation Shiva to secure the ongoing Amarnath Yatra with 8,500 troops and a counter-unmanned aerial system (C-UAS) grid.

The 38-day pilgrimage started on July 3 and will conclude on August 9.

The pilgrimage follows two routes: the 48 km Nunwan-Pahalgam route (Anantnag district) and the 14 km Baltal route (Ganderbal district).

Operation Shiva is conducted in coordination with civil administration and Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) to ensure smooth and secure yatra conduct.

The operation addresses threats from Pakistan-backed proxies post Operation Sindoor.

Medical support includes 150+ doctors and medical personnel, two advanced dressing stations, nine medical aid posts, a 100-bed hospital, and 26 oxygen booths with 2,00,000 litres of oxygen.

27) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

In a key step to boost handball's popularity nationwide, Prasar Bharati signed a three-year Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Handball Association of India (HAI).

Detailed Explanation:

In a key step to boost handball's popularity nationwide, Prasar Bharati signed a three-year Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Handball Association of India (HAI).

The MoU aims to provide wider broadcast coverage of handball events and foster greater public interest and player participation.

MoU Exchange: The agreement was signed between Gaurav Dwivedi, CEO of Prasar Bharati, and Anandeshwar Pande, Executive Director of HAI, in the presence of Navneet Kumar Sehgal, Chairman of Prasar Bharati.

Broadcast Platforms: All national and international handball events will be aired on DD Sports, streamed via Waves OTT, and shared on other Prasar Bharati platforms.

Focus on Visibility: The initiative will help popularize handball across India, particularly among youth in rural and urban areas, by offering greater media exposure.

28) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Poland’s Iga Swiatek won her first Wimbledon title, defeating Amanda Anisimova (USA) with a rare 6-0, 6-0 scoreline.

Detailed Explanation:

Poland’s Iga Swiatek won her first Wimbledon title, defeating Amanda Anisimova (USA) with a rare 6-0, 6-0 scoreline.

The 57-minute match became one of the most one-sided women’s finals in Grand Slam history and marked a major milestone in Swiatek’s already impressive career.

Historic Final Score: Swiatek won with a "double bagel" (6-0, 6-0), only the third time this has happened in a women’s Grand Slam final, and the first since 1988.

Grand Slam Achievement: This win is Swiatek’s sixth Grand Slam title and her first on grass, making her the only active female player to win major titles on clay, hard, and grass courts.

29) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Chennai-based chess player Harikrishnan A. Ra. has officially become India’s 87th Grandmaster (GM) after securing his final GM norm at the La Plagne International Chess Festival in France.

Detailed Explanation:

Chennai-based chess player Harikrishnan A. Ra. has officially become India’s 87th Grandmaster (GM) after securing his final GM norm at the La Plagne International Chess Festival in France.

This success marks the end of a seven-year journey that began when he first became an International Master.

Final GM Norm Achieved: Harikrishnan secured his third and final GM norm by drawing his last-round match against Indian player P. Iniyan at La Plagne, after defeating Jules Moussard (France) in the penultimate round.

Seven-Year Climb to GM: He had been an International Master (IM) for seven years, narrowly missing GM norms in previous events.

30) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

In the final of the Europe Qualifiers, the Netherlands clinched a crucial victory, while Italy leveraged a superior net run rate to book their place in the 2026 ICC Men’s T20 World Cup—marking Italy’s debut in the tournament.

Detailed Explanation:

In the final of the Europe Qualifiers, the Netherlands clinched a crucial victory, while Italy leveraged a superior net run rate to book their place in the 2026 ICC Men’s T20 World Cup—marking Italy’s debut in the tournament.

Netherlands’ Match-Winning Performance: The Dutch side chased down 134/7 comfortably, sealing qualification with a win on the final day.

Italy’s Historic Debut: Despite losing the match, Italy advanced by maintaining the required net run rate, becoming first-time qualifiers.

Contenders in the Race: Jersey and Scotland also competed on the last day but fell short of qualification.

Key Player Contributions: Benjamin Manenti and Grant Stewart anchored Italy’s batting, while Roelof van der Merwe starred for the Netherlands with 3 wkts / 15 runs.