Daily Current Affairs Quiz - 11th August 2026
Aug 11 2026
Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2026 of 11th August 2026. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2026 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.
1) As per the revised RBI directions on loan recovery practices and engagement of recovery agents, the implementation of the revised framework has been extended from 1 October 2026 to which date?
(a) 1 November 2026
(b) 1 December 2026
(c) 1 January 2027
(d) 1 April 2027
(e) 1 July 2027
2) Recently, Indian Bank approved nearly how much amount in MSME loans for 128 beneficiaries during a Credit Outreach Programme held in New Delhi as part of its 120th Foundation Day Fortnight Celebrations?
(a) ₹250 crore
(b) ₹350 crore
(c) ₹500 crore
(d) ₹750 crore
(e) ₹1,250 crore
3) Recently, which bank received approval from the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) to offer wealth management products and services through its branch at GIFT City, Gandhinagar?
(a) HSBC Bank
(b) Standard Chartered Bank
(c) Barclays Bank
(d) Deutsche Bank
(e) Citi Bank
4) Recently, Jammu & Kashmir Bank (J&K Bank) entered into a Corporate Agency Partnership with which insurance company to distribute and service insurance products through its branch network across India?
(a) HDFC Life Insurance
(b) ICICI Prudential Life Insurance
(c) Max Life Insurance
(d) SBI Life Insurance Company Limited
(e) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
5)Recently, the RBI proposed a revised Credit Valuation Adjustment (CVA) framework for commercial banks. Under the draft framework, which approach will generally be used by eligible banks to calculate their CVA capital charge?
(a) Standardised Approach for Credit Risk
(b) Basic Approach for Credit Valuation Adjustment (BA-CVA)
(c) Internal Ratings-Based (IRB) Approach
(d) Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA)
(e) Fundamental Review of the Trading Book (FRTB) Approach
6) Recently, which company received a perpetual Authorised Dealer Category-II (AD-II) foreign exchange licence from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
(a) Bajaj Finance
(b) Muthoot FinCorp
(c) Shriram Finance
(d) Manappuram Finance
(e) Mahindra Finance
7) Recently, Ladakh is set to introduce India’s first-ever “High-Altitude Wildlife Safari” primarily on which trails?
(a) Snow-leopard and bird-watching trails
(b) Tiger and elephant trails
(c) Rhino and wetland trails
(d) Lion and crocodile trails
(e) Leopard and mangrove trails
8) Recently, the Tenth BRICS Industry Ministers’ Meeting concluded in Jaipur under India’s BRICS Chairship 2026. What was the theme of the meeting?
(a) One Earth, One Family, One Future
(b) Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability
(c) Strengthening Global Trade and Economic Growth
(d) Inclusive Growth through Digital Transformation
(e) Innovation, Investment and Sustainable Development
9) Recently, APEDA facilitated the first-ever commercial sea shipment of GI-tagged Mithila Makhana from Bihar to which country?
(a) United States
(b) United Kingdom
(c) Australia
(d) Japan
(e) Germany
10) Recently, which organisation partnered with the Association of Australian Education Representatives in India (AAERI) to launch the ‘AAERI Verify’ digital platform for document verification of Indian students seeking admission to Australian universities?
(a) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
(b) National e-Governance Division (NeGD)
(c) University Grants Commission (UGC)
(d) Digital India Corporation (DIC)
(e) All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
11) Recently, under India’s BRICS Chairship 2026, which organisation organised the Meeting of Heads of BRICS Competition Authorities in Udaipur, Rajasthan?
(a) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(d) NITI Aayog
(e) Competition Commission of India (CCI)
12) Consider the following statements regarding Kroll’s ‘Celebrity Brand Valuation 2025’ report:
- Shah Rukh Khan emerged as India’s most valuable celebrity with a brand value of USD 177.9 million.
- Virat Kohli ranked third with a brand value of USD 158.4 million.
- Alia Bhatt ranked sixth and remained India’s most valuable female celebrity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) All the above
(e) None of the above
13) Recently, Justice V. Kameswar Rao was recommended for appointment as the Chief Justice of which High Court by the Supreme Court Collegium?
(a) Calcutta High Court
(b) Bombay High Court
(c) Patna High Court
(d) Punjab and Haryana High Court
(e) Delhi High Court
14) Recently, the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved a one-year extension for whom as the Director of the Enforcement Directorate (ED)?
(a) Sanjay Kumar Mishra
(b) Vivek Joshi
(c) Tapan Deka
(d) Ravi Agrawal
(e) Rahul Navin
15) What type of services are currently provided by IRNSS-1B, IRNSS-1I, and NVS-01 under India’s NavIC system?
(a) Earth Observation and Remote Sensing services
(b) Communication and Broadcasting services
(c) Positioning, Navigation and Timing (PNT) services
(d) Weather Forecasting and Climate Monitoring services
(e) Disaster Management and Warning services
16) Recently, which organisation developed the indigenous Modified Mix Seal Surfacing Plus (MSS+) Technology for sustainable and cost-effective road construction and maintenance?
(a) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
(b) CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI)
(c) Indian Roads Congress (IRC)
(d) National Institute of Technology (NIT), Jaipur
(e) Central Public Works Department (CPWD)
17) Recently, Union Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh dedicated the first-of-its-kind CSIR-NBRI Eco-Educational Hub ‘Prakriti Gyan Dham’ to the nation at which place?
(a) CSIR-NBRI, New Delhi
(b) Maharishi Parashar Bioresource Centre (MPBC), Banthra, Lucknow
(c) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
(d) CSIR-NEERI, Nagpur
(e) National Botanical Garden, Kolkata
18) Recently, which university secured Indian Patent No. 596319 for ‘HYDERACENE’, a novel polymer-based material developed for solid rocket propellants?
(a) University of Hyderabad (UoH)
(b) Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU)
(d) University of Delhi
(e) IIT Hyderabad
19) Recently, the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) was recognised by SEARN as which of the following?
(a) Regional Centre of Excellence in Clinical Trials
(b) Technical Centre in Drug Manufacturing
(c) Regional Centre of Excellence in Medical Device Regulation
(d) Regional Centre of Excellence in Pharmacovigilance and Technical Centre in Quality
(e) Regional Centre of Excellence in Pharmaceutical Innovation
20) Recently, which organisation developed India’s first indigenous MA-104 cell line-based live attenuated vaccine against African Swine Fever (ASF)?
(a) ICAR–National Institute of High Security Animal Diseases (ICAR-NIHSAD)
(b)Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI)
(c) National Institute of Virology (NIV)
(d) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(e) National Dairy Development Board (NDDB)
21) Recently, Lohia Aerospace Systems Private Limited signed an MoU with which Israel-based company to introduce large-format 3D printing technology for composite tooling and aerospace components in India?
(a) Elbit Systems
(b) Rafael Advanced Defense Systems
(c) Massivit
(d) Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI)
(e) Stratasys
22) According to Times Higher Education (THE) Sustainability Impact Ratings 2026, which university secured the 1st position globally in Sustainable Development Goal 5 (Gender Equality)?
(a) Manipal Academy of Higher Education (MAHE)
(b) University of Manchester
(c) University of Toronto
(d) University of Sydney
(e) University of Oxford
23) According to the Brand Finance India 100 2026 report, which group retained the position of India’s most valuable brand for the 10th consecutive year?
(a) Reliance Group
(b) Tata Group
(c) HDFC Group
(d) Infosys
(e) State Bank of India (SBI) Group
24) According to the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) Global Liveability Index 2026, which city was ranked as the world’s most liveable city?
(a) Vienna, Austria
(b) Melbourne, Australia
(c) Copenhagen, Denmark
(d) Zurich, Switzerland
(e) Geneva, Switzerland
25) Recently, who became the only Indian female photojournalist accredited to cover the FIFA World Cup 2026?
(a) Avani Rai
(b) Anindita Mukherjee
(c) Saumya Khandelwal
(d) Smita Sharma
(e) Gitika Talukdar
26) Recently, who won the British Grand Prix 2026 at the Silverstone Circuit?
(a) George Russell
(b) Max Verstappen
(c) Charles Leclerc
(d) Lewis Hamilton
(e) Kimi Antonelli
27) Recently, which England fast bowler announced his retirement from professional cricket at the age of 25 due to persistent injury problems?
(a) John Turner
(b) Jofra Archer
(c) Saqib Mahmood
(d) Matthew Potts
(e) Josh Tongue
28) Recently, International Day of the World’s Indigenous Peoples is observed annually on which date?
(a) August 5
(b) August 9
(c) August 10
(d) August 12
(e) August 15
29) Who is the Managing Director & CEO of Indian Bank at present?
(a) Ashwani Kumar
(b) Binod Kumar
(c) S. L. Jain
(d) Dinesh Khara
(e) C. S. Setty
30) Which of the following is the National Park located in Ladakh?
(a) Dachigam National Park
(b) Great Himalayan National Park
(c) Hemis National Park
(d) Kishtwar National Park
(e) Pin Valley National Park
Answers:
1) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued revised directions governing loan recovery practices and the engagement of recovery agents to strengthen borrower protection, transparency, and responsible recovery practices.
The implementation of the revised framework has been extended from 1 October 2026 to 1 January 2027, providing regulated entities additional time to comply with the new requirements.
The revised framework applies to commercial banks, except Small Finance Banks (SFBs), Payments Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), and Local Area Banks (LABs).
Recovery agencies can deploy only those recovery agents who have obtained the prescribed certification after completing the Debt Recovery Agents training programme offered by the Indian Institute of Banking and Finance (IIBF) or an institute having a tie-up with IIBF.
Detailed Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued revised directions governing loan recovery practices and the engagement of recovery agents to strengthen borrower protection, transparency, and responsible recovery practices.
The implementation of the revised framework has been extended from 1 October 2026 to 1 January 2027, providing regulated entities additional time to comply with the new requirements.
The revised framework applies to commercial banks, except Small Finance Banks (SFBs), Payments Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), and Local Area Banks (LABs).
Recovery agencies can deploy only those recovery agents who have obtained the prescribed certification after completing the Debt Recovery Agents training programme offered by the Indian Institute of Banking and Finance (IIBF) or an institute having a tie-up with IIBF.
Existing recovery agents who were not previously covered by the certification requirement will receive a one-year transition window to obtain the required IIBF certification or certification from an institute having a tie-up with IIBF.
The revised framework does not apply to a Regulated Entity’s own employees performing recovery activities, agents collecting regular periodic instalments, or law firms assisting lenders by issuing notices or representing them before courts.
Banks must publish an updated list of their empanelled recovery agencies on their websites, including the agency’s type, address, period of engagement, and purpose of engagement.
2) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
Indian Bank (IB) approved nearly ₹500 crore in Micro Small Medium Enterprise (MSME) loans for 128 beneficiaries during a Credit Outreach Programme held in New Delhi, Delhi, as part of its 120th Foundation Day Fortnight Celebrations.
The bank also mobilised credit proposals worth nearly ₹1,250 crore, highlighting its efforts to expand MSME credit access.
The initiative provides faster and paperless loan processing, with in-principle approval in about 30 minutes for eligible MSME borrowers.
Detailed Explanation:
Indian Bank (IB) approved nearly ₹500 crore in Micro Small Medium Enterprise (MSME) loans for 128 beneficiaries during a Credit Outreach Programme held in New Delhi, Delhi, as part of its 120th Foundation Day Fortnight Celebrations.
The bank also mobilised credit proposals worth nearly ₹1,250 crore, highlighting its efforts to expand MSME credit access.
The initiative provides faster and paperless loan processing, with in-principle approval in about 30 minutes for eligible MSME borrowers.
Under the MSME Goods and Services Tax (GST) framework, the lending process uses OTP-based digital documentation, reducing paperwork and processing time.
Indian Bank launched the Unified MSME Portal, a digital platform designed to provide seamless and integrated lending services to MSME customers.
The Unified MSME Portal enables digital lending using PAN, GST and Udyam Registration details, supported by Application Programming Interfaces (APIs) and Account Aggregators.
3) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Standard Chartered Bank received approval from the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) to offer wealth management products and services through its branch at Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City), Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
The approval allows Standard Chartered to provide a wider range of investment solutions to both resident and non-resident clients through India’s International Financial Services Centre (IFSC).
The bank can now offer retail wealth management services, capital market products, and other expanded financial solutions directly from GIFT City.
Detailed Explanation:
Standard Chartered Bank received approval from the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) to offer wealth management products and services through its branch at Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City), Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
The approval allows Standard Chartered to provide a wider range of investment solutions to both resident and non-resident clients through India’s International Financial Services Centre (IFSC).
The bank can now offer retail wealth management services, capital market products, and other expanded financial solutions directly from GIFT City.
The initiative is expected to strengthen GIFT City’s position as an international financial hub by expanding access to global wealth management capabilities for Indian and international clients.
The development supports India’s objective of establishing GIFT IFSC as a global financial gateway connecting Indian and international financial markets.
Standard Chartered Bank became the first foreign bank to commence operations at GIFT City in 2020.
From its GIFT City centre, Standard Chartered currently provides lending, trade finance, transaction services, and financial markets products to corporate and institutional clients.
4) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
SBI Life Insurance Company Limited entered into a Corporate Agency Partnership with Jammu & Kashmir Bank Limited (J&K Bank) to distribute and service SBI Life insurance products through J&K Bank’s branch network across India.
The partnership aims to strengthen insurance penetration and financial inclusion by combining SBI Life’s insurance expertise with J&K Bank’s customer network.
Detailed Explanation:
SBI Life Insurance Company Limited entered into a Corporate Agency Partnership with Jammu & Kashmir Bank Limited (J&K Bank) to distribute and service SBI Life insurance products through J&K Bank’s branch network across India.
The partnership aims to strengthen insurance penetration and financial inclusion by combining SBI Life’s insurance expertise with J&K Bank’s customer network.
Through the partnership, J&K Bank customers will gain access to SBI Life’s portfolio of protection, savings, retirement, and child insurance plans.
The insurance products are designed to meet customers’ diverse financial needs and life-stage requirements.
5) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has proposed a revised Credit Valuation Adjustment (CVA) framework for commercial banks to make capital requirements more risk-sensitive and improve the measurement of risks from derivative transactions.
Under the draft framework, eligible banks will generally calculate their CVA capital charge using the Basic Approach for Credit Valuation Adjustment (BA-CVA).
Banks using the BA-CVA approach can choose between the Full BA-CVA and Reduced BA-CVA versions, depending on their ability to recognise eligible CVA hedges.
Detailed Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has proposed a revised Credit Valuation Adjustment (CVA) framework for commercial banks to make capital requirements more risk-sensitive and improve the measurement of risks from derivative transactions.
Credit Valuation Adjustment (CVA) is an adjustment to the risk-free value of a derivative contract to account for the possibility of counterparty default.
CVA risk arises when changes in counterparty credit spreads or other market factors reduce the value of a bank’s derivative portfolio.
The proposed framework is based on the revised Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) standards under the final Basel III framework.
The revised framework will replace the existing RBI CVA framework introduced in 2011.
Under the draft framework, eligible banks will generally calculate their CVA capital charge using the Basic Approach for Credit Valuation Adjustment (BA-CVA).
Banks using the BA-CVA approach can choose between the Full BA-CVA and Reduced BA-CVA versions, depending on their ability to recognise eligible CVA hedges.
6) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Muthoot FinCorp received a perpetual Authorised Dealer Category-II (AD-II) foreign exchange licence from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), allowing it to offer a wider range of regulated foreign exchange (forex) services.
The perpetual AD-II licence removes the requirement for periodic renewal, while Muthoot FinCorp must continue to comply with applicable RBI foreign exchange regulations.
Under the licence, Muthoot FinCorp can undertake foreign currency exchange, issue multi-currency forex cards, and facilitate remittances under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS).
Detailed Explanation:
Muthoot FinCorp received a perpetual Authorised Dealer Category-II (AD-II) foreign exchange licence from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), allowing it to offer a wider range of regulated foreign exchange (forex) services.
The perpetual AD-II licence removes the requirement for periodic renewal, while Muthoot FinCorp must continue to comply with applicable RBI foreign exchange regulations.
Under the licence, Muthoot FinCorp can undertake foreign currency exchange, issue multi-currency forex cards, and facilitate remittances under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS).
The company can also facilitate family maintenance remittances and trade-related remittances, subject to applicable RBI regulations and limits.
In May 2026, RBI expanded the permitted activities of eligible AD-II entities, allowing them to facilitate trade-related remittances up to ₹25 lakh and family maintenance remittances.
The expanded AD-II framework enables eligible non-bank entities to participate in a larger segment of the trade and remittance business.
7) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
Ladakh is set to introduce India’s first-ever “High-Altitude Wildlife Safari” on popular snow-leopard and bird-watching trails in its high-altitude regions.
The initiative was approved by Lieutenant Governor (L-G) Vinai Kumar Saxena to promote responsible eco-tourism, wildlife conservation and sustainable livelihoods.
The Forest Department will introduce guided Jeep Safaris using specially designed open-back vehicles, operated by trained local drivers and guides.\
The safari model aims to prevent illegal off-roading and disturbance to wildlife, while improving visitor experience and promoting sustainable tourism
Detailed Explanation:
Ladakh is set to introduce India’s first-ever “High-Altitude Wildlife Safari” on popular snow-leopard and bird-watching trails in its high-altitude regions.
The initiative was approved by Lieutenant Governor (L-G) Vinai Kumar Saxena to promote responsible eco-tourism, wildlife conservation and sustainable livelihoods.
The Forest Department will introduce guided Jeep Safaris using specially designed open-back vehicles, operated by trained local drivers and guides.
The safari model aims to prevent illegal off-roading and disturbance to wildlife, while improving visitor experience and promoting sustainable tourism.
Possible safari routes will be explored across Hemis National Park, Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary and Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary, along with Nubra, Zanskar, Sham, Kargil and Drass.
The decision was taken during the first governing body meeting of the Snow Leopard and High-Altitude Nature (SHAN) Conservation Society, chaired by L-G Vinai Kumar Saxena.
20 local youth will be selected and trained in birdwatching, bird identification and bird-spotting, with equipment such as binoculars.
10 bird-watching hides will be established at major bird-watching hotspots.
Ladakh is home to 477 snow leopards, out of India’s estimated 718 snow leopards, making it the region with the country’s largest snow leopard population.
Ladakh supports more than 38 mammal species, 340 bird species and 1,800 vascular plant species.
8) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
The Tenth BRICS Industry Ministers’ Meeting concluded in Jaipur, Rajasthan, under India’s BRICS Chairship 2026, bringing together Industry Ministers and senior representatives from BRICS member countries for discussions under the BRICS Partnership on New Industrial Revolution (PartNIR).
The meeting was held under the theme “Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability”, with discussions focused on strengthening industrial capabilities, technological transformation, innovation, sustainability and practical cooperation among BRICS member countries.
Detailed Explanation:
The Tenth BRICS Industry Ministers’ Meeting concluded in Jaipur, Rajasthan, under India’s BRICS Chairship 2026, bringing together Industry Ministers and senior representatives from BRICS member countries for discussions under the BRICS Partnership on New Industrial Revolution (PartNIR).
The meeting was held under the theme “Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability”, with discussions focused on strengthening industrial capabilities, technological transformation, innovation, sustainability and practical cooperation among BRICS member countries.
Piyush Goyal, Union Minister of Commerce and Industry, emphasised that BRICS countries should leverage their complementary strengths to build resilient industries and highlighted PartNIR as the principal mechanism for industrial cooperation. Jitin Prasada, Minister of State for Commerce and Industry, reaffirmed India’s commitment to stronger industrial partnerships based on cooperation, innovation and mutual trust.
The BRICS journey began with the first BRICS Summit in Yekaterinburg, Russia, in 2009. India, which assumed the BRICS Chairship in 2026 after Brazil’s Chairship in 2025, is pursuing an incremental, proactive and pragmatic approach to strengthen practical cooperation among member countries.
Under India’s Chairship, important outcomes were achieved through the PartNIR Advisory Group and thematic Working Groups. These included the Framework for Cooperation in the Small and Medium Enterprises (SME) Working Group, the Terms of Reference and Action Plan for the Photovoltaic Industry Working Group, and the Action Plan on innovation-led growth by startups.
9) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) facilitated the first-ever commercial sea shipment of 18 Metric Tonnes of Geographical Indication (GI)-tagged Mithila Makhana from the BIADA Industrial Area, Bihta, Bihar, to Australia.
The consignment was sourced directly from Makhana growers of Darbhanga district.
Detailed Explanation:
The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) facilitated the first-ever commercial sea shipment of 18 Metric Tonnes of Geographical Indication (GI)-tagged Mithila Makhana from the BIADA Industrial Area, Bihta, Bihar, to Australia.
The consignment was sourced directly from Makhana growers of Darbhanga district.
The shipment was flagged off by Vijay Kumar Sinha, Agriculture Minister, Government of Bihar. The initiative is expected to strengthen the international presence of Bihar’s flagship GI product, expand export opportunities and improve farmers’ income through direct international market access.
The export-oriented value chain enabled farmers to realise nearly 18% higher returns than prevailing market rates. The consignment was exported by NIAD Green, with logistics support from Jitban Supply Chain Private Limited, a startup supported under APEDA’s BHARATI (Bharat's Hub for Agritech, Resilience, Advancement, and Incubation for Export Innovation) initiative.
The premium-quality raw GI-tagged Mithila Makhana was sourced directly from farmers in Darbhanga district and packed at the BIADA Industrial Area, Bihta, Bihar. The initiative is expected to create sustainable export opportunities for Bihar’s Makhana sector and strengthen the value chain involving growers, processors and exporters.
10) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
The National e-Governance Division (NeGD) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has partnered with the Association of Australian Education Representatives in India (AAERI) to launch ‘AAERI Verify’, a digital platform aimed at simplifying and securing the verification of documents for Indian students seeking admission to Australian universities.
The platform was officially launched during the AAERI Annual Convention in New Delhi on 7 August 2026. It is directly integrated with DigiLocker and enables secure, paperless and consent-based verification of students’ academic, identity and financial documents.
Detailed Explanation:
The National e-Governance Division (NeGD) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has partnered with the Association of Australian Education Representatives in India (AAERI) to launch ‘AAERI Verify’, a digital platform aimed at simplifying and securing the verification of documents for Indian students seeking admission to Australian universities.
The platform was officially launched during the AAERI Annual Convention in New Delhi on 7 August 2026. It is directly integrated with DigiLocker and enables secure, paperless and consent-based verification of students’ academic, identity and financial documents.
AAERI Verify is a source-verified authentication platform designed to streamline credential verification for Australian higher education institutions. Through its integration with DigiLocker, students can share authentic, issuer-verified and digitally signed documents directly from the original issuing authorities, reducing dependence on physical documents and manual verification.
The digital verification process has been divided into two stages: Stage 1 – Student Check, conducted before the university application process begins; and Stage 2 – Sponsor Check, initiated after the student receives an admission offer to verify the authenticity of financial sponsorship documents.
11) Answer: E
Short Explanation:
Under India’s BRICS Chairship 2026, the Meeting of Heads of BRICS Competition Authorities was organised by the Competition Commission of India (CCI) in Udaipur, Rajasthan.
The meeting brought together heads and senior representatives of competition authorities from BRICS member countries to strengthen cooperation in promoting fair competition and addressing emerging challenges in competition law and policy.
Ravneet Kaur, Chairperson of the Competition Commission of India, highlighted the shared responsibility of BRICS competition authorities to promote competitive markets, efficiency, consumer welfare, innovation and merit-based competition. .
Detailed Explanation:
Under India’s BRICS Chairship 2026, the Meeting of Heads of BRICS Competition Authorities was organised by the Competition Commission of India (CCI) in Udaipur, Rajasthan.
The meeting brought together heads and senior representatives of competition authorities from BRICS member countries to strengthen cooperation in promoting fair competition and addressing emerging challenges in competition law and policy.
Ravneet Kaur, Chairperson of the Competition Commission of India, highlighted the shared responsibility of BRICS competition authorities to promote competitive markets, efficiency, consumer welfare, innovation and merit-based competition. .
The Heads of BRICS Competition Authorities exchanged views on recent developments in competition law and policy, including significant enforcement initiatives, institutional developments and emerging challenges in their respective domestic markets.
As part of India’s BRICS Chairship, the Competition Commission of India steered a collaborative study titled “Emerging Competition Landscape in the Renewable Energy Sector in BRICS”.
12) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
Kroll, an American global financial advisory firm, released the 11th edition of the ‘Kroll Celebrity Brand Valuation 2025’ report.
Shah Rukh Khan emerged as India’s most valuable celebrity, securing the 1st position with a brand value of USD 177.9 million.
Ranveer Singh retained the 2nd position with a brand value of USD 162.9 million.
Virat Kohli slipped from 1st position in 2024 to 3rd position in 2025, with a brand value of USD 158.4 million.
Sachin Tendulkar moved up to 4th position, with a brand value of USD 125.9 million.
Detailed Explanation:
Kroll, an American global financial advisory firm, released the 11th edition of the ‘Kroll Celebrity Brand Valuation 2025’ report.
Shah Rukh Khan emerged as India’s most valuable celebrity, securing the 1st position with a brand value of USD 177.9 million.
Ranveer Singh retained the 2nd position with a brand value of USD 162.9 million.
Virat Kohli slipped from 1st position in 2024 to 3rd position in 2025, with a brand value of USD 158.4 million.
Sachin Tendulkar moved up to 4th position, with a brand value of USD 125.9 million.
Mahendra Singh Dhoni improved from 7th position in 2024 to 5th position in 2025, with a brand value of USD 115.3 million.
Alia Bhatt ranked 6th with a brand value of USD 93.9 million, retaining her position as the most valuable female celebrity in India.
Deepika Padukone ranked 7th with a brand value of USD 89.2 million.
The combined brand value of India’s top 25 celebrities stood at approximately USD 2 billion, registering a 3.7% decline compared with the previous year.
12 women featured in the Top 25, compared with 9 women in 2024.
13) Answer: C
The Supreme Court Collegium, headed by Chief Justice of India (CJI) Surya Kant, recommended the elevation of four judges as Chief Justices of different High Courts at its meeting held on 6 August 2026.
The recommendations concern the Patna High Court, Calcutta High Court, Bombay High Court, and Punjab and Haryana High Court.
Justice V. Kameswar Rao, presently a judge of the Delhi High Court, was recommended for appointment as Chief Justice of the Patna High Court.
14) Answer: E
The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved a one-year extension for Enforcement Directorate (ED) Director Rahul Navin beyond 13 August 2026.
Rahul Navin will continue as ED Director up to 13 August 2027, including extension in service beyond his superannuation date of 31 July 2027, or until further orders, whichever is earlier.
Rahul Navin is a 1993-batch Indian Revenue Service (IRS) officer of the Income Tax cadre and has been serving as the ED chief since September 2023.
15) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
For the first time, the Government informed Parliament that India’s NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) currently cannot provide standalone positioning services because only three navigation satellites are operational, whereas at least four satellites are required for independent navigation.
NavIC is designed to provide accurate Positioning, Navigation and Timing (PNT) services across India and up to 1,500 km beyond India’s borders.
Detailed Explanation:
For the first time, the Government informed Parliament that India’s NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) currently cannot provide standalone positioning services because only three navigation satellites are operational, whereas at least four satellites are required for independent navigation.
The disruption occurred after IRNSS-1F, launched in March 2016, completed its 10-year mission life, after which its onboard atomic clock stopped functioning.
At present, IRNSS-1B, IRNSS-1I, and NVS-01 are providing Positioning, Navigation and Timing (PNT) services for NavIC.
NavIC is India’s indigenous regional satellite navigation system, developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) under the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS).
NavIC is designed to provide accurate Positioning, Navigation and Timing (PNT) services across India and up to 1,500 km beyond India’s borders.
The original NavIC system is designed around a constellation of seven satellites, enabling reliable regional navigation and timing services.
16) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI), New Delhi presented its indigenously developed Modified Mix Seal Surfacing Plus (MSS+) Technology to V. Srinivas, IAS, Chief Secretary, Government of Rajasthan, at the Rajasthan Secretariat.
The MSS+ Technology is designed to promote sustainable, cost-effective, and environmentally friendly road construction and maintenance.
The technical presentation was delivered by Satish Pandey, Senior Principal Scientist and Head, Flexible Pavement Division, CSIR-CRRI.
Detailed Explanation:
CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI), New Delhi presented its indigenously developed Modified Mix Seal Surfacing Plus (MSS+) Technology to V. Srinivas, IAS, Chief Secretary, Government of Rajasthan, at the Rajasthan Secretariat.
The MSS+ Technology is designed to promote sustainable, cost-effective, and environmentally friendly road construction and maintenance.
The technical presentation was delivered by Satish Pandey, Senior Principal Scientist and Head, Flexible Pavement Division, CSIR-CRRI.
The initiative followed a request from Dr. N. Kalaiselvi, Director General, CSIR and Secretary, DSIR, Government of India, to the Chief Secretary of Rajasthan to consider CSIR-CRRI’s indigenous green road technologies for sustainable infrastructure development.
MSS+ Technology can help extend pavement life while reducing construction emissions, energy consumption, and maintenance costs.
During the presentation, CSIR-CRRI highlighted the scientific basis, field performance, economic advantages, and environmental benefits of the MSS+ technology.
CSIR-CRRI also conducted a live demonstration on a Jaipur city road using the MSS+ Smart Mix Pro Automatic Plant, developed indigenously by CSIR-CRRI.
17) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Union Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh, Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science & Technology and Earth Sciences and Vice-President, CSIR, dedicated the first-of-its-kind CSIR-NBRI Eco-Educational Hub ‘Prakriti Gyan Dham’ to the nation at the Maharishi Parashar Bioresource Centre (MPBC), Banthra, Lucknow.
Dr. Jitendra Singh called for bringing the work of scientific institutions closer to society by systematically showcasing their technologies, success stories, and societal applications.
Detailed Explanation:
Union Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh, Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science & Technology and Earth Sciences and Vice-President, CSIR, dedicated the first-of-its-kind CSIR-NBRI Eco-Educational Hub ‘Prakriti Gyan Dham’ to the nation at the Maharishi Parashar Bioresource Centre (MPBC), Banthra, Lucknow.
Dr. Jitendra Singh called for bringing the work of scientific institutions closer to society by systematically showcasing their technologies, success stories, and societal applications.
He emphasised greater use of digital and social media platforms to make scientific solutions accessible to farmers, entrepreneurs, students, industries, and other stakeholders.
He also called for greater inter-departmental and inter-ministerial coordination to integrate complementary projects and maximise the societal impact of scientific research and innovation.
The Eco-Educational Hub represents the convergence of scientific research, environmental education, biodiversity conservation, botanical heritage, and cultural interpretation.
The Hub has been designed as a living repository of India’s botanical and cultural legacy, providing an immersive learning environment for students, researchers, educators, nature enthusiasts, and the general public.
18) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
University of Hyderabad (UoH) secured Indian Patent No. 596319 for HYDERACENE, a novel polymer-based material developed for solid rocket propellants used in defence and space applications.
The patent was granted on 21 July 2026, with University of Hyderabad as the patentee.
HYDERACENE was developed by Mutyalanaidu Ganivada, Prof. Sourav Jana, and Prof. Tushar Jana of the School of Chemistry, University of Hyderabad.
HYDERACENE is a dual-function material that acts as both a polymer binder and a burn-rate catalyst, eliminating the need for two separate materials in solid rocket propellants.
Detailed Explanation:
University of Hyderabad (UoH) secured Indian Patent No. 596319 for HYDERACENE, a novel polymer-based material developed for solid rocket propellants used in defence and space applications.
The patent was granted on 21 July 2026, with University of Hyderabad as the patentee.
HYDERACENE was developed by Mutyalanaidu Ganivada, Prof. Sourav Jana, and Prof. Tushar Jana of the School of Chemistry, University of Hyderabad.
HYDERACENE is a dual-function material that acts as both a polymer binder and a burn-rate catalyst, eliminating the need for two separate materials in solid rocket propellants.
The patented material is formally described as Ferrocene Polyethylene Glycidyl Grafted Hydroxyl-Terminated Polybutadiene and was synthesised using ring-opening polymerisation.
In solid rocket propellants, the binder acts as a glue-like polymer that holds the fuel components together and provides structural integrity.
A burn-rate catalyst is a specialised chemical additive that helps speed up and control the combustion rate of the propellant.
HYDERACENE combines these two functions into a single polymer binder-cum-catalyst, improving the stability, efficiency, and control of combustion in solid rocket motors.
19) Answer: D
Short Explanation:
The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC), under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, participated in the 10th Anniversary Meeting of the South-East Asia Regulatory Network (SEARN) held in Kathmandu, Nepal, on 4–5 August 2026.
The South-East Asia Regulatory Network (SEARN) was established by the WHO South-East Asia Regional Office (WHO-SEARO) in 2016 to strengthen drug regulatory systems across member countries.
A major achievement at the meeting was the recognition of IPC as the WHO-SEARN Regional Centre of Excellence in Pharmacovigilance and the Technical Centre in Quality.
Detailed Explanation:
The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC), under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, participated in the 10th Anniversary Meeting of the South-East Asia Regulatory Network (SEARN) held in Kathmandu, Nepal, on 4–5 August 2026.
The South-East Asia Regulatory Network (SEARN) was established by the WHO South-East Asia Regional Office (WHO-SEARO) in 2016 to strengthen drug regulatory systems across member countries.
SEARN promotes knowledge sharing, regulatory convergence, capacity building, and reliance mechanisms among National Regulatory Authorities (NRAs).
SEARN works through thematic groups covering quality assurance, pharmacovigilance, clinical trial oversight, regulatory preparedness, and medical device regulation.
The main objective of SEARN is to improve access to safe, effective, and quality-assured medical products across the WHO South-East Asia Region.
A major achievement at the meeting was the recognition of IPC as the WHO-SEARN Regional Centre of Excellence in Pharmacovigilance and the Technical Centre in Quality.
20) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
ICAR–National Institute of High Security Animal Diseases (ICAR-NIHSAD), Bhopal has developed India’s first indigenous MA-104 cell line-based live attenuated vaccine against African Swine Fever (ASF).
The vaccine was developed by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) using an attenuated ASF Virus (ASFV) Genotype II with unique gene deletions.
The vaccine uses the MA-104 cell line, which is widely available and enables large-scale, cost-effective vaccine production without dependence on proprietary manufacturing platforms.
Detailed Explanation:
ICAR–National Institute of High Security Animal Diseases (ICAR-NIHSAD), Bhopal has developed India’s first indigenous MA-104 cell line-based live attenuated vaccine against African Swine Fever (ASF).
The vaccine was developed by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) using an attenuated ASF Virus (ASFV) Genotype II with unique gene deletions.
The vaccine uses the MA-104 cell line, which is widely available and enables large-scale, cost-effective vaccine production without dependence on proprietary manufacturing platforms.
African Swine Fever (ASF) is a highly contagious viral disease affecting domestic and wild pigs, with mortality rates that can reach nearly 100%.
ASF was first detected in India in 2020 and has caused significant pig mortality, economic losses, trade disruptions, and livelihood losses, particularly among smallholder pig farmers in North-East India.
ASF outbreaks in Assam during 2020–2021 caused estimated losses of around ₹276 crore due to pig mortality and culling.
In Mizoram, ASF affected more than 11,382 households up to 2025, resulting in reported financial losses of nearly ₹982 crore.
The vaccine has undergone comprehensive laboratory evaluation for sterility, purity, safety, genetic stability, immunogenicity, protective efficacy, and virulence reversion.
The recognition acknowledges IPC’s contribution to strengthening medicine safety, pharmacovigilance systems, pharmaceutical quality standards, and regulatory capacity-building in the region.
21) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
Lohia Aerospace Systems Private Limited has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Massivit, an Israel-based large-format additive manufacturing company, to introduce advanced large-format 3D printing technology for composite tooling and critical aerospace components in India.
The partnership has been established under a Joint Manufacturing Alliance and will mark the first commercial deployment of Massivit’s large-format 3D printing technology for composite manufacturing in India.
The technology will be installed at Lohia Aerospace Systems’ facility in Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh.
Detailed Explanation:
Lohia Aerospace Systems Private Limited has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Massivit, an Israel-based large-format additive manufacturing company, to introduce advanced large-format 3D printing technology for composite tooling and critical aerospace components in India.
The partnership has been established under a Joint Manufacturing Alliance and will mark the first commercial deployment of Massivit’s large-format 3D printing technology for composite manufacturing in India.
The technology will be installed at Lohia Aerospace Systems’ facility in Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh.
Lohia Aerospace Systems plans to invest around US$8–10 million over the next 1–2 years, with further investment depending on market demand.
The company is undertaking a 250,000-square-foot expansion at its Kanpur facility, in addition to its existing 80,000-square-foot manufacturing unit.
The platform will enable the production of moulds and production tools within days instead of weeks, potentially reducing production cycles by up to 90%.
Each printer can produce approximately 1–2 complete tool sets per day, with the company planning to deploy 8–10 printers initially.
The project is expected to create around 60–100 skilled employment opportunities.
22) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
Times Higher Education (THE) released the 8th edition of the Sustainability Impact Ratings 2026, which measures the contribution of universities towards the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
The University of Manchester, United Kingdom secured the 1st position overall in the Sustainability Impact Ratings 2026.
Manipal Academy of Higher Education (MAHE) secured the 1st position globally in Sustainable Development Goal 5 (Gender Equality) while retaining its position in the 101–200 global band.
Detailed Explanation:
Times Higher Education (THE) released the 8th edition of the Sustainability Impact Ratings 2026, which measures the contribution of universities towards the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
The University of Manchester, United Kingdom secured the 1st position overall in the Sustainability Impact Ratings 2026.
Manipal Academy of Higher Education (MAHE) secured the 1st position globally in Sustainable Development Goal 5 (Gender Equality) while retaining its position in the 101–200 global band.
The results were announced at the Global Sustainable Development Congress held in Jakarta, Indonesia.
The 2026 rankings evaluated 1,646 universities from 116 countries and territories across 17 individual Sustainable Development Goal tables and one overall ranking.
The rankings assess how universities contribute to sustainability and social impact through their research, teaching, outreach and institutional activities.
Mali, Nicaragua, Niger and Tajikistan made their debut in the global rankings in 2026.
23) Answer: B
Short Explanation:
Brand Finance released the Brand Finance India 100 2026 report, ranking India’s most valuable and strongest brands.
The 100 most valuable Indian brands collectively reached a brand value of USD 252.8 billion in 2026, registering a 7% increase over the previous year.
9 of the top 10 brands recorded an increase in brand value despite challenging global economic conditions.
Tata Group retained the position of India’s most valuable brand for the 10th consecutive year.
Tata Group’s brand value increased by 7% to USD 33.6 billion, supported by investments in electronics, semiconductors, digital infrastructure and electric mobility, along with recovery in its stock value.
Detailed Explanation:
Brand Finance released the Brand Finance India 100 2026 report, ranking India’s most valuable and strongest brands.
The 100 most valuable Indian brands collectively reached a brand value of USD 252.8 billion in 2026, registering a 7% increase over the previous year.
9 of the top 10 brands recorded an increase in brand value despite challenging global economic conditions.
Tata Group retained the position of India’s most valuable brand for the 10th consecutive year.
Tata Group’s brand value increased by 7% to USD 33.6 billion, supported by investments in electronics, semiconductors, digital infrastructure and electric mobility, along with recovery in its stock value.
Infosys retained the 2nd position for the fifth consecutive year, with its brand value remaining at USD 16.4 billion. Growth was supported by demand for Artificial Intelligence (AI), cloud computing and digital transformation services.
Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) Group ranked 3rd, with brand value increasing 12% to USD 15.3 billion.
HDFC Group remained among the leading brands, with its brand value declining 2% to USD 13.9 billion.
Reliance Group recorded an 11% increase in brand value to USD 10.8 billion, driven by expansion in retail, telecommunications, digital services, energy, consumer businesses and new energy.
State Bank of India (SBI) Group recorded a 2% increase in brand value to USD 9.8 billion.
24) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
The Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) released the Global Liveability Index 2026, evaluating living conditions across 173 cities worldwide.
Copenhagen, Denmark ranked 1st and emerged as the world’s most liveable city in 2026.
Vienna, Austria ranked 2nd, followed by Melbourne, Australia at 3rd.
Detailed Explanation:
The Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) released the Global Liveability Index 2026, evaluating living conditions across 173 cities worldwide.
The index assesses cities across 30 indicators, grouped into 5 major categories:
Stability – 25%
Culture and Environment – 25%
Healthcare – 20%
Infrastructure – 20%
Education – 10%
Copenhagen, Denmark ranked 1st and emerged as the world’s most liveable city in 2026.
Vienna, Austria ranked 2nd, followed by Melbourne, Australia at 3rd.
Top 3 Most Liveable Cities – 2026:
Copenhagen – Denmark
Vienna – Austria
Melbourne – Australia
Indian Cities in the Global Liveability Index 2026:
New Delhi – 120th globally and 1st among Indian cities
Mumbai – 121st globally and 2nd among Indian cities
Chennai – 123rd globally and 3rd among Indian cities
Bengaluru – 127th globally and 4th among Indian cities
Damascus, Syria, ranked 173rd, making it the least liveable city in the index.
25) Answer: E
Short Explanation:
Gitika Talukdar, a sports photojournalist from Northeast India, became the only Indian female photojournalist accredited to cover the FIFA World Cup 2026.
The FIFA World Cup 2026 is her third consecutive Men's FIFA World Cup assignment, following:
FIFA World Cup 2018 – Russia
FIFA World Cup 2022 – Qatar
FIFA World Cup 2026 – United States, Canada and Mexico
Detailed Explanation:
Gitika Talukdar, a sports photojournalist from Northeast India, became the only Indian female photojournalist accredited to cover the FIFA World Cup 2026.
The FIFA World Cup 2026 is her third consecutive Men's FIFA World Cup assignment, following:
FIFA World Cup 2018 – Russia
FIFA World Cup 2022 – Qatar
FIFA World Cup 2026 – United States, Canada and Mexico
Her accreditation for three consecutive Men's FIFA World Cups is a significant achievement given the highly competitive international media selection process.
She has also covered major international sporting events, including:
FIFA Women's World Cups – France 2019 and Australia–New Zealand 2023
Tokyo Olympics 2020
Paris Olympics 2024
Commonwealth Games
Indian Premier League (IPL)
International Cricket Council (ICC) tournaments
International football championships
Educational Background: She studied Global Sports Management at Seoul National University, South Korea, with a scholarship from the Ministry of Sports and Culture of South Korea.
26) Answer: C
Short Explanation:
Charles Leclerc of Ferrari won the British Grand Prix 2026 at the Silverstone Circuit, securing his first Formula One victory since 2024.
The victory marked Ferrari’s 250th Formula One Grand Prix win, making it a significant milestone for the team.
Detailed Explanation:
Charles Leclerc of Ferrari won the British Grand Prix 2026 at the Silverstone Circuit, securing his first Formula One victory since 2024.
The victory marked Ferrari’s 250th Formula One Grand Prix win, making it a significant milestone for the team.
George Russell of Mercedes finished 2nd, while Lewis Hamilton of Ferrari secured 3rd position.
Kimi Antonelli of Mercedes, who started from pole position, finished 16th after facing a problem with his car.
Antonelli’s result reduced his once-commanding lead in the Formula One Drivers’ Championship to 25 points.
Max Verstappen of Red Bull Racing crashed out four laps before the finish, triggering the Safety Car.
27) Answer: A
Short Explanation:
John Turner, England’s fast bowler, announced his retirement from professional cricket at the age of 25, citing persistent injury problems.
Turner represented England in 4 international matches in 2024, comprising 2 One Day Internationals (ODIs) and 2 Twenty20 Internationals (T20Is).
Detailed Explanation:
John Turner, England’s fast bowler, announced his retirement from professional cricket at the age of 25, citing persistent injury problems.
Turner represented England in 4 international matches in 2024, comprising 2 One Day Internationals (ODIs) and 2 Twenty20 Internationals (T20Is).
He made his international debut during England’s 2024 tour of the West Indies and took 3 wickets across the four matches.
Born in Johannesburg, South Africa, Turner represented Hampshire County Cricket Club in domestic cricket.
He joined Hampshire in 2021 after a successful trial and earned his first England call-up in 2023 after impressive performances in The Hundred.
Turner had two years remaining on his Hampshire contract at the time of his retirement.
28) Answer: B
International Day of the World’s Indigenous Peoples is observed annually on August 9 to raise awareness about the rights, culture, traditions and well-being of Indigenous Peoples and to highlight the challenges they face in areas such as education, healthcare, environment, culture and economic development.
Theme 2026: “Honouring Indigenous Midwives: Safeguarding Life and Well-being.” The theme highlights the important role of Indigenous midwives in protecting maternal and newborn health, preserving traditional knowledge and ensuring the well-being of Indigenous communities.
29) Answer: B
About Indian Bank (IB) :
Established : 15 August 1907
Headquarters : Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
MD & CEO : Binod Kumar
30) Answer: C
About Ladakh:
Lieutenant Governor: Vinai Kumar Saxena
Capital: Leh
National Parks: Hemis National Park
Wildlife Sanctuaries: Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary, Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary
Daily Current Affairs 12th August 2026 | Latest News | Download Free PDF
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