Daily Current Affairs Quiz - 09th April 2024

Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2024 of 09th April 2024. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2024 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.

 

Start Quiz

 

1) Which organization suggests reporting private placement memorandum changes for alternative investment funds directly to cut compliance costs?

(a) SIDBI

(b) NABARD

(c) SEBI

(d) IRDAI

(e) NPCI


2) As of April 2024, the foreign portfolio investments had taken out ₹325 crore from Indian stocks. How much percentage point increase in the US 10-year yield might have an immediate effect on foreign direct investment flows into India?

(a) 4.2%

(b) 4.1%

(c) 4.3%

(d) 4.4%

(e) 4.5%


3)
Assets under administration at Nippon India Mutual Fund, ICICI MF, and HDFC MF Increased by Double Digits for FY24. By what percentage Report Phrase did the average AUM of Nippon India Mutual Fund rise to ₹4.31 lakh crore in the fiscal year that ended in March 2024 from ₹3.78 lakh crore in FY'23?

(a) 12%

(b) 13%

(c) 14%

(d) 15%

(e) 16%


4)
In its first meeting of FY25, the six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) kept the policy repo rate at 6.50% since retail inflation has continued to exceed the goal by how muchper cent?

(a) 2%

(b) 3%

(c) 4%

(d) 5%

(e) 6%


5)
From April 2024, all new policies will be required to adopt e-insurance in a format similar to Demat. In India, how many insurance repositories make it easier to open an electronic insurance account?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

(e) 7


6)
Which state-based company, Hygenco, opened India's first green hydrogen factory in March to produce steel and has ambitions to construct three more by FY25?

(a) Sikkim

(b) Gujarat

(c) Assam

(d) Haryana

(e) Jharkhand


7)
According to which state/UT Traffic Police, the first three months of 2024 experienced an astounding increase of 1,550 percent over the same period in 2022?

(a) Delhi

(b) Kerala

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Karnataka

(e) Puducherry


8)
Which state's Khavda Renewable Energy Park will see the construction of the world's largest renewable energy plant, with a 30-gigawatt capacity, thanks to an estimated ₹1.5 trillion in investments from Adani Green Energy Ltd. through 2030?

(a) Sikkim

(b) Gujarat

(c) Assam

(d) Haryana

(e) Jharkhand


9)
Foreign ministers gather in Brussels to commemorate the 75th anniversary of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization. Just a few weeks have passed since Sweden became the ______________ member of the Alliance, marking this year's NATO Day.

(a) 31

(b) 32

(c) 33

(d) 34

(e) 35


10)
Former Gazprom unit rejects $1.8 billion in compensation demanded by GAIL. When did GAIL and the Russian energy giant Gazprom establish a 20-year agreement for GAIL to purchase up to 2.85 million tonnes of LNG annually?

(a) 2012

(b) 2015

(c) 2014

(d) 2018

(e) 2016


11)
In an effort to stabilize operations, Vistara announced a reduction of what percentage of its capacity, or 25–30 flights per day, with the majority of the cancellations occurring in the domestic network?

(a) 5%

(b) 10%

(c) 15%

(d) 20%

(e) 25%


12)
In February 2024, India imported 13% more coal. How many more MT were imported over the same period in FY23, compared to it in Feb 2024?

(a) 19.14MT

(b) 19.15MT

(c) 19.16MT

(d) 19.18MT

(e) 19.19MT


13)
Which country supplied approximately 90% of India's imports of laptops and personal computers (PCs) in January 2024?

(a) Japan

(b) USA

(c) China

(d) UK

(e) Germany


14)
Who was appointed to serve as the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) presiding officer for a four-year termby the Finance Ministry?

(a) P.S  Arun Kumar

(b) P.S  Gokul Kumar

(c) P.S  Pradeep Kumar

(d) P.S  Dinesh Kumar

(e) P.S  Senthil Kumar


15)
Who was chosen to serve as the National Cooperative Dairy Federation of India Limited's chairman?

(a) Praveen Chaudhary

(b) Dr. Meenesh Shah

(c) Sameer Kumar Parida

(d) Shamalbhai B. Patel

(e) K.S. Patel


16)
The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) report for 2022 states that India has the greatest number of doping offenders worldwide. Which nation's doping offence resulted in a ban from international sports?

(a) China

(b) Belgium

(c) Russia

(d) Pakistan

(e) Ukraine


17)
Out of how many races in the 2024 season, Red Bull's Max Verstappen won his third title in the Japanese Grand Prix with a fantastic performance?

(a) 5

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 7

(e) 8


18)
Which city is the place where legendary Ramsay Brothers cinematographer Gangu Ramsay passed away?

(a) Kolkata

(b) Mumbai

(c) Surat

(d) Jaipur

(e) Bhopal


19)
Under which Section of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, was the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) constituted as a statutory body?

(a) Section 12K

(b) Section 10K

(c) Section 15K

(d) Section 18K

(e) Section 16K


20) Where is the headquarters of NATO?

(a) China

(b) Belgium

(c) Russia

(d) Pakistan

(e) Ukraine


Answers :

1) Answer: C

  • To facilitate ease of doing business, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has proposed that certain changes in the private placement memorandum (PPM) of alternative investment funds (AIF) can be submitted directly to the regulator rather than through a merchant banker.
  • Also, the proposed move would rationalise the cost of compliance for AIFs.
  • These included changes in the size of the fund, information related to affiliates, commitment period, key investment team of the manager and key management personnel of AIF, and reduction in expense or fee or cost charged to fund/investors.
  • Additionally, changes in contact details of AIF, sponsor, manager, trustee or custodian, risk factors and track records of investment manager, among others, are not required to be filed through a merchant banker.

Detailed Explanation:

  • To facilitate ease of doing business, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has proposed that certain changes in the private placement memorandum (PPM) of alternative investment funds (AIF) can be submitted directly to the regulator rather than through a merchant banker.
  • Also, the proposed move would rationalise the cost of compliance for AIFs.
  • These included changes in the size of the fund, information related to affiliates, commitment period, key investment team of the manager and key management personnel of AIF, and reduction in expense or fee or cost charged to fund/investors.
  • Additionally, changes in contact details of AIF, sponsor, manager, trustee or custodian, risk factors and track records of investment manager, among others, are not required to be filed through a merchant banker.
  • The SEBI has sought public comments on the proposal by April 26, 2024.
  • Presently, any changes in the terms of PPM must be submitted to SEBI through a merchant banker, accompanied by a due diligence certificate in a specified format.
  • This ensures transparency and regulatory compliance.
  • Such changes in the terms of PPM and in the documents of the fund/scheme are required to be intimated to investors and SEBI on a consolidated basis within 1 month of the end of each financial year.
  • In its circular, the regulator also recommended that large-value funds for accredited investors (LVFs) should be exempted from the requirement of intimating any changes in the terms of PPM through a merchant banker.


2) Answer: D

  • Foreign Portfolio Investments (FPIs) have turned cautious as they pulled out ₹325 crore from Indian equities in the first week of April 2024 owing to relatively high valuations and the upcoming general elections.
  • The net outflow came after a staggering investment of ₹35,000 crore in March and ₹1,539 crore in February, 2024.
  • The US 10-year yield has spiked to4%, potentially impacting FPI investment flows into India in the near term.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Foreign Portfolio Investments (FPIs) have turned cautious as they pulled out ₹325 crore from Indian equities in the first week of April 2024 owing to relatively high valuations and the upcoming general elections.
  • The net outflow came after a staggering investment of ₹35,000 crore in March and ₹1,539 crore in February, 2024.
  • The US 10-year yield has spiked to4%, potentially impacting FPI investment flows into India in the near term.
  • Indian government securities (G-Sec) 10-year yield standing at 7.1% and the US 10-year at 4.3% present a compelling case for FPIs.
  • They invested ₹22,419 crore in February 2024, ₹19,836 crore and ₹18,302 crore in January 2024.
  • JP Morgan Chase & Co announced that it would add Indian government bonds to its benchmark emerging market index from June 2024.
  • This landmark inclusion is anticipated to benefit India by attracting around $20-40 billion in the subsequent 18 to 24 months.
  • Overall, the total inflow for this year so far stood at more than ₹10,500 crore in equities and over ₹57,000 crore in the debt market.


3) Answer: C

  • Nippon India Mutual Fund, ICICI Mutual Fund, and HDFC Mutual Fund are among the top 10 fund houses that registered double-digit growth in average assets under management (AUM) in the last fiscal year.
  • Nippon India MF’s average AUM increased 14% to ₹4.31 lakh crore in the fiscal ended March, compared to ₹3.78 lakh crore in FY’23
  • ICICI MF and HDFC MF logged an 11% rise to ₹6.83 lakh crore (₹6.14 lakh crore) and ₹6.12 lakh crore (₹5.51 lakh crore), respectively.
  • SBI MF topped the table with an average AUM jump of 7% at ₹9.14 lakh crore (₹8.51 lakh crore).

Detailed Explanation:

  • Nippon India Mutual Fund, ICICI Mutual Fund, and HDFC Mutual Fund are among the top 10 fund houses that registered double-digit growth in average assets under management (AUM) in the last fiscal year.
  • Nippon India MF’s average AUM increased 14% to ₹4.31 lakh crore in the fiscal ended March, compared to ₹3.78 lakh crore in FY’23
  • ICICI MF and HDFC MF logged an 11% rise to ₹6.83 lakh crore (₹6.14 lakh crore) and ₹6.12 lakh crore (₹5.51 lakh crore), respectively.
  • SBI MF topped the table with an average AUM jump of 7% at ₹9.14 lakh crore (₹8.51 lakh crore).
  • Beyond the top 10, Tata MF registered a 12% rise in average AUM to ₹1.47 lakh crore (₹1.32 lakh crore).
  • Overall, the average AUM last fiscal was up 10% at ₹54.13 lakh crore (₹49.22 lakh crore), largely aided by the rally in the market on the back of steady inflows from retail investors through mutual funds.
  • Foreign portfolio investors contributed a whopping ₹2.06 lakh crore last fiscal year against being a net seller to the tune of ₹1.7 lakh crore in FY22.
  • The schemes’ performance, strong risk management, and investments in digital infrastructure have also been the key drivers for the growth.


4) Answer: C

  • The Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) maintained the policy repo rate at 6.50% at its first meeting of FY25 due to persisting retail inflation above the 4% target.
  • The policy repo rate under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) was also kept unchanged at 6.50%, alongside the standing deposit facility (SDF) rate at 6.25% and the marginal standing facility (MSF) rate and the Bank Rate at 6.75%.
  • The decisions align to achieve the medium-term target for Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation of 4% within a band of +/- 2% while supporting economic growth.

Detailed Explanation:

  • The Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) maintained the policy repo rate at 6.50% at its first meeting of FY25 due to persisting retail inflation above the 4% target.
  • The policy repo rate under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) was also kept unchanged at 6.50%, alongside the standing deposit facility (SDF) rate at 6.25% and the marginal standing facility (MSF) rate and the Bank Rate at 6.75%.
  • The decisions align to achieve the medium-term target for Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation of 4% within a band of +/- 2% while supporting economic growth.
  • Projected Inflation: CPI inflation for the 2024-25 period is projected at 5%, indicating expectations for a moderate inflationary environment.
  • The RBI persisted with its "withdrawal of accommodation" stance, indicating a cautious approach towards monetary policy adjustments.
  • 5 out of 6 MPC members, namely Shashanka Bhide, Dr. Ashima Goyal, Dr. Rajiv Ranjan, Dr. Michael Debabrata Patra, and Shri Shaktikanta Das, voted to maintain the policy repo rate at 6.50%.
  • Jayanth R. Varma dissented and voted to reduce the policy repo rate by 25 basis points.
  • The MPC had last changed the repo rate in February 2023, when it upped it by 25 basis points from 6.25 per cent to 6.50 per cent.
  • It has been on pause since then.
  • The Reserve Bank retained the GDP growth forecast of 7% for the 2024-25 financial year.
  • This forecast is lower than the 7.6% expansion estimated for FY24, indicating a potentially slower pace of economic growth.
  • The next meeting of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is scheduled for June 5 to 7, 2024.
  • Under Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934, the central government has the authority to constitute a six-member MPC.


5) Answer: B

  • Starting from April 1, 2024, it is mandatory for insurance policies to be held in electronic format, akin to shares in a demat account.
  • e-Insurance simply means buying insurance policies in a digital format.
  • electronic insurance policies will be held in a demat account termed e-Insurance Account, or eIA.
  • There are 4 insurance repositories – CAMS Insurance Repository, Karvy, NSDL Database Management (NDML), and Central Insurance Repository of India that facilitate the opening of e-Insurance accounts in India.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Starting from April 1, 2024, it is mandatory for insurance policies to be held in electronic format, akin to shares in a demat account.
  • This highlights a significant shift towards digitalization in the insurance sector.
  • The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has mandated this transition and requires insurers to have a Board-approved policy for issuing electronic insurance policies.
  • To issue policies in the electronic format, the insurers must fulfil two conditions:
  1. Provided that the authority, on being satisfied that it is in the interest of policyholders and for orderly growth of the insurance industry, allow such exemptions to this requirement
  2. Provided further that the insurer shall mandatorily seek the choice of the prospect in the proposal form for availing physical policy document,
  • e-Insurance simply means buying insurance policies in a digital format.
  • electronic insurance policies will be held in a demat account termed e-Insurance Account, or eIA.
  • There are 4 insurance repositories – CAMS Insurance Repository, Karvy, NSDL Database Management (NDML), and Central Insurance Repository of India that facilitate the opening of e-Insurance accounts in India.


6) Answer: D

  • India’s first green hydrogen plant commissioned, highlighting commercial viability; Hygenco aims for three more by FY25.
  • Hygenco, a Haryana-based company, commissioned India’s first green hydrogen plant for steel production in March and plans to build three more by FY25.

Detailed Explanation:

  • India’s first green hydrogen plant commissioned, highlighting commercial viability; Hygenco aims for three more by FY25.
  • Hygenco, a Haryana-based company, commissioned India’s first green hydrogen plant for steel production in March and plans to build three more by FY25.
  • Anshul Gupta, Co-founder of Hygenco, emphasised the importance of producing green hydrogen at the lowest cost and in the most efficient way for various applications like steel and glass production.
  • Factors influencing the choice of renewable energy source include operational requirements of the electrolyser, such as solar for daytime operation and wind for continuous supply.

National Hydrogen Mission:

  • Aims to establish India as a global green hydrogen hub.
  • Includes provisions for demand creation, R&D, skill development, and policy framework.

Green Hydrogen Consumption Obligations:

  • Proposed for fertiliser and petroleum refining industries.
  • Mandates a certain percentage of green hydrogen consumption.

Green Hydrogen Hubs:

  • Identified by MNRE for large-scale production and utilisation.
  • Aimed at developing regions as centres for green hydrogen activities.


7) Answer: A

  • The number of drunken driving challans issued in the first three months of 2024 saw a staggering rise of 1,550 per cent compared to the same period in 2022, according to Delhi Traffic Police.

Detailed Explanation:

  • The number of drunken driving challans issued in the first three months of 2024 saw a staggering rise of 1,550 per cent compared to the same period in 2022, according to Delhi Traffic Police.
  • During the year 2024, from January 1 to March 31, the Delhi Traffic Police initiated special drives against drunken driving and booked 6,591 violators compared to 399 in 2022 in the same period
  • Compared to the corresponding period last year, a rise of 22 per cent was witnessed with 5,384 challans issued for this offence in 2023

8) Answer: B

  • Adani Green Energy Ltd plans to invest about ₹1.5 trillion through 2030 to develop the world’s largest renewable energy plant with a 30-gigawatt capacity at the Khavda renewable energy park in Gujarat.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Adani Green Energy Ltd plans to invest about ₹1.5 trillion through 2030 to develop the world’s largest renewable energy plant with a 30-gigawatt capacity at the Khavda renewable energy park in Gujarat.
  • The project, part of the Adani Group's renewable energy flagship’s plan to achieve 45 gigawatt (GW) installed renewable energy capacity in the country by 2030, will see 26 GW of solar and 4 GW of wind generation capacity coming up.
  • Currently, AGEL has an operating renewable portfolio of 10.93 GW—7.39 GW solar, 1.4 GW wind, and 2.14 GW of hybrid—across 12 states.


9) Answer: B

  • North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Foreign Ministers gathered at NATO Headquarters, Brussels, Belgium to mark 75 years since the signing of the Washington Treaty.
  • This year’s NATO Day comes just weeks after Sweden joined as the thirty-second member of the Alliance.

Detailed Explanation:

  • North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Foreign Ministers gathered at NATO Headquarters, Brussels, Belgium to mark 75 years since the signing of the Washington Treaty.
  • NATO approved a proposal for a 100-billion-euro, 5-year fund to Ukraine.
  • Since 1949, the Alliance has ensured peace, democracy and prosperity for its members, now counting 32 Allies and one billion people on both sides of the Atlantic.
  • This year’s NATO Day comes just weeks after Sweden joined as the thirty-second member of the Alliance.
  • The Washington Treaty, or North Atlantic Treaty, forms the basis of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).
  • It was signed in Washington D.C. in 1949, by 12 founding members.
  • The Treaty derives its authority from Article 51 of the United Nations Charter, which reaffirms the inherent right of independent states to individual or collective defence.
  • Collective defence is at the heart of the treaty and is enshrined in Article 5.


10) Answer: A

  • A former unit of Russian energy giant Gazprom has rejected state-owned GAIL (India) Ltd's demand for compensation for non-delivery of LNG supplies in the aftermath of Russia's invasion of Ukraine.
  • GAIL in 2012 signed a 20-year deal to buy as much as 2.85 million tonnes per annum of liquefied natural gas (LNG) with Russian energy giant Gazprom.

Detailed Explanation:

  • A former unit of Russian energy giant Gazprom has rejected state-owned GAIL (India) Ltd's demand for compensation for non-delivery of LNG supplies in the aftermath of Russia's invasion of Ukraine.
  • In a stock exchange filing, GAIL said SEFE Marketing Trading Singapore Pte Ltd has stated that it does not owe anything other than the defaulted cargoes.
  • GAIL in December last year filed an arbitration claim before the London Court of International Arbitration seeking $1.8 billion for "non-supply of LNG cargoes under a long-term contract
  • This included compensation for non-supply besides making up for the defaulted volumes.
  • GAIL in 2012 signed a 20-year deal to buy as much as 2.85 million tonnes per annum of liquefied natural gas (LNG) with Russian energy giant Gazprom.
  • The deal was signed with Gazprom Marketing and Singapore (GMTS), which at the time was a unit of Gazprom Germania, now called Sefe.
  • The Russian parent gave up ownership of Sefe after Western sanctions were imposed on Moscow over its invasion of Ukraine in 2022.


11) Answer: B

  • Facing disruptions due to the non-availability of crew, Vistara announced reducing 10 per cent of its capacity or 25-30 flights daily and most of the cancellations are in the domestic network as the Tata Group airline strives to stabilise operation

Detailed Explanation:

  • Facing disruptions due to the non-availability of crew, Vistara announced reducing 10 per cent of its capacity or 25-30 flights daily and most of the cancellations are in the domestic network as the Tata Group airline strives to stabilise operations.
  • The full-service carrier is to operate daily in the ongoing summer schedule and witnessed significant disruptions earlier this week as many pilots reported sick, resulting in cancellations of flights.
  • The airline hopes to have stable operations in April and beyond.
  • The cancellations by Vistara will further reduce the overall available capacity amid rising domestic air passenger traffic and the fares could rise on certain routes due to a lesser number of services.


12) Answer: B

  • India saw a 13% increase in coal imports, reaching 21.64 million tonnes (MT) in February 2024, attributed to buyers taking new positions to restock ahead of the summer season, reports Mjunction, an online
  • This marked a rise from the 19.15 MT imported during the same period in FY23.

Detailed Explanation:

  • India saw a 13% increase in coal imports, reaching 21.64 million tonnes (MT) in February 2024, attributed to buyers taking new positions to restock ahead of the summer season, reports Mjunction, an online marketplace.
  • This marked a rise from the 19.15 MT imported during the same period in FY23.
  • The overall coal import trend for FY24 reveals a total of 244.27 MT, up from 227.93 MT in the corresponding period of the previous fiscal year, as disclosed by the online marketplace.
  • Specifically, non-coking coal imports for the April-February period of FY24 stood at 160.63 MT, increasing from 148.58 MT in FY23. Coking coal imports during the same period reached 51.87 MT, rising from 50.50 MT recorded in April-February 2022-23.
  • Meanwhile, India's domestic coal production for the April-February period of FY24 amounted to 880.72 million tonnes.


13) Answer: C

  • In January 2024, nearly 90 per cent of the laptops and personal computers (PCs) imported by India came from China.
  • Beijing’s share was well over 89 per cent and, in November 2023, the figure was 83 per cent.
  • In all, until January in the 2023-24 financial year (FY), nearly eight out of 10 laptops sold in India came from China, shows an Indian Express analysis of the Commerce Ministry’s import-export data bank.

Detailed Explanation:

  • In January 2024, nearly 90 per cent of the laptops and personal computers (PCs) imported by India came from China.
  • Beijing’s share was well over 89 per cent and, in November 2023, the figure was 83 per cent.
  • In all, until January in the 2023-24 financial year (FY), nearly eight out of 10 laptops sold in India came from China, shows an Indian Express analysis of the Commerce Ministry’s import-export data bank.
  • Between August and October, amid uncertainty around the deferred notification, China's share came down to around 70 per cent.
  • From November 2023 to January 2024, after the licence plan was dropped, Beijing's share in imports of the goods shot up to 87.5 per cent


14) Answer: D

  • The Finance Ministry appointed P S Dinesh Kumar, a retired judge, as the presiding officer of the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) for a tenure of 4 years.
  • The ministry has also appointed Dheeraj Bhatnagar as a technical member of the tribunal for 4 years or till he reaches the age of 67, whichever is earlier.
  • Bhatnagar retired as principal chief commissioner of Income Tax, Delhi.

Detailed Explanation:

  • The Finance Ministry appointed P S Dinesh Kumar, a retired judge, as the presiding officer of the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) for a tenure of 4 years.
  • The ministry has also appointed Dheeraj Bhatnagar as a technical member of the tribunal for 4 years or till he reaches the age of 67, whichever is earlier.
  • Bhatnagar retired as principal chief commissioner of Income Tax, Delhi.
  • Kumar is a former chief justice of the Karnataka High Court.
  • He was a judge at the High Court since 2015 and vacated office in February, 2024.
  • He has served as the standing counsel in the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), and senior standing counsel for BSNL, Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), University Grants Commission (UGC), All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), and National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE).
  • SAT comprises a presiding officer who will be a retired judge and two members – one judicial and one technical.
  • The presiding officer's position was vacant for over 3 months after justice Tarun Agarwala retired in December 2023.
  • Justice Meera Swarup was the only technical member on the bench after Justice Agarwala retired.


15) Answer: B

  • The apex body of dairy cooperatives, National Cooperative Dairy Federation of India Limited. (NCDFI), in its Board elections, unanimously elected Meenesh Shah as the Chairman.
  • Meenesh Shah is also serving as Director on the Board of the International Dairy Federation (IDF).

Detailed Explanation:

  • The apex body of dairy cooperatives, National Cooperative Dairy Federation of India Limited. (NCDFI), in its Board elections, unanimously elected Meenesh Shah as the Chairman.
  • Meenesh Shah is also serving as Director on the Board of the International Dairy Federation (IDF).
  • The election was conducted by Praveen Chaudhary, IAS, District Collector of Anand who served as the Returning Officer.
  • Before this, NCDFI in its General Body meeting held on April 04, 2024 elected 8 directors on the Board unopposed.
  • This included Dr Meenesh Shah, Jharkhand Milk Federation, Dr. Mangal Jit Rai, Sikkim Milk Union, Shamalbhai B. Patel, Gujarat Milk Federation, Randhir Singh, Haryana Milk Federation, K. S. Mani, Kerala Milk Federation, Balachandra L. Jarakiholi, Karnataka Milk Federation, Narinder Singh Shergill, Punjab Milk Federation and Sameer Kumar Parida, West Assam Milk Union.


16) Answer: C

  • According to the 2022 World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) report, India has the highest percentage of doping offenders among countries. Out of 4,064 samples collected from Indian athletes, 127 individuals tested positive for banned substances, which is 3.26% of the sample size.
  • Russia became a doping offense resulting in a ban from international sports.

Detailed Explanation:

  • According to the 2022 World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) report, India has the highest percentage of doping offenders among countries. Out of 4,064 samples collected from Indian athletes, 127 individuals tested positive for banned substances, which is 3.26% of the sample size.
  • Trailing India, South Africa, and Bangkok’s laboratories were ranked second and third, with doping failures at 2.04% and 1.93%
  • Russia become a doping offense resulted in a ban from international sports.
  • India’s count surpassed sporting nations like Russia, the United States, Italy, and France.
  • Meanwhile, China led in the sheer volume of tests conducted, with 17,357 samples and a relatively low AAF percentage of 0.25%.
  • This trend is alarming and highlights the need for comprehensive measures to address this growing problem in Indian sports.
  • Furthermore, the report reveals a 6.4% increase in the total number of samples analyzed compared to the previous year.
  • The percentage of Adverse Analytical Findings (AAFs) also rose from 0.65% in 2021 to 0.77% in 2022, indicating a growing issue worldwide.
  • Olivier Niggli, WADA's director-general, emphasized that intelligence-led testing, values-based education, investigations, and other strategies must be employed to combat doping effectively. This multi-faceted approach aims to protect athletes and maintain the integrity of sports.


17) Answer: B

  • At the Japanese Grand Prix, Red Bull's Max Verstappen put on a dominant display, securing his third victory out of four races in the 2024 season.
  • Verstappen, who is a triple world champion, started the race from pole position and led his teammate Sergio Perez to the first turn.
  • He maintained his lead throughout the race, showcasing his exceptional driving skills and control of the car.

Detailed Explanation:

  • At the Japanese Grand Prix, Red Bull's Max Verstappen put on a dominant display, securing his third victory out of four races in the 2024 season.
  • Verstappen, who is a triple world champion, started the race from pole position and led his teammate Sergio Perez to the first turn.
  • Verstappen's performance at the Japanese Grand Prix was a remarkable comeback after he had to retire from the previous race due to a brake issue.
  • With this victory, Verstappen has taken an early lead in the world championship, putting him in a strong position for the title race.
  • The championship will resume in two weeks with the Chinese Grand Prix in Shanghai, a race that has not been held since 2019 due to the pandemic.
  • Overall, Max Verstappen and Red Bull's performance at the Japanese Grand Prix was impressive and showcased their strong pace and reliability.
  • Their competitors in the 2024 Formula 1 title race will undoubtedly be concerned about their performance, given their exceptional driving skills and control of the car.


18) Answer: B

  • Cinematographer-filmmaker Gangu Ramsay, one of the seven Ramsay Brothers known for cult horror films such as Purani Haveli and Tehkhana, passed away at the age of 83.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Cinematographer-filmmaker Gangu Ramsay, one of the seven Ramsay Brothers known for cult horror films such as Purani Haveli and Tehkhana, passed away at the age of 83.
  • Gangu Ramsay's career spanned decades as he worked on over 50 iconic films under the Ramsay Brothers banner, including classics like Veerana, Purana Mandir, Bandh Darwaza, Do Gaz Zameen Ke Neeche, Saamri, Tahkhana, Purani Haveli, and Khoj.
  • He worked with Bollywood actor Saif Ali Khan on his debut film Aashik Aawara, and also collaborated with Bollywood superstar Akshay Kumar on the Khiladi series like Khiladiyon Ka Khiladi, Sabse Bada Khiladi, and Pandav.
  • He also worked in the medium of television with the Horror Show, Naagin, and Zimbo.
  • His legacy extends beyond borders, having worked with renowned actors like Vishnu Vardhan in the southern film industry.
  • He also served as cinematographer on Aashiq Awara, one of Saif Ali Khan’s initial movies.


19) Answer: C

About SAT :

  • The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) is a statutory body established under the provisions of Section 15K of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
  • SAT hears and disposes of appeals against orders passed by SEBI, the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) and the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).


20) Answer: B

About NATO :

  • Headquarter: Brussels, Belgium
  • Secretary General Jens Stoltenberg
  • It is a military alliance established by the North Atlantic Treaty.
  • It currently has 32 alliance members from North America and Europe.
  • Its fundamental goal is to safeguard the Allies’ freedom and security through political and military means.
  • It is a system of collective defence where independent member states agree for mutual defence in case of an attack by an external party.
  • TAGS

Recent Posts

Daily Current Affairs 18 June 2024 | Latest News | Download Free PDF

Jun 18 2024

Daily Current Affairs 16 & 17 June 2024 | Latest News | Download Free PDF

Jun 17 2024

Daily Current Affairs Quiz - 15th June 2024

Jun 15 2024

RUDRA DI - A Complete Book For Data Interpretation
  • Covered all types of DI & Caselet Questions both for Prelims & Mains Exams with step by step detailed explanation.
  • New Pattern, High, Tricky, Interesting DI questions based on IBPS PO & SBI PO Mains Previous Year Exams.
  • Includes all Arithmetic DIs, logical DIs, New Pattern Dis & Variable based DI questions.
  • Covered All Level DI Questions from IBPS RRB Clerk Level (Easier) to SBI PO Level (Harder)
₹599 ₹299
View Package
Premium Bundle PDF Course 2024
  • Exactly Based on Real Exam Pattern
  • Language: English and Hindi
  • Included with All New Pattern Questions
  • Covered All Major Bank (Pre + Mains Exams)
  • Answer key with video solution and Quizzes
  • Including Previous Year Memory based Questions
  • Prepared by Top Expert Faculties
  • Total 1,20,000+ Questions
  • 5 Months Validity
₹9999 ₹1199
View Package
General Awareness Smart Analysis
  • Get Weekly 4 set Test
  • Each Set consist of 50 Questions
  • Compare your progress with Test 1 & 2 & Test 3 & 4
  • Deep Analysis in topic wise questions
₹599 ₹149
View Package
Super Plan
  • Premium Bundle PDF Course 2024
  • Bundle PDF Course 2023
  • Ultimate Bundle PDF Course 2022
  • Grand Bundle PDF Course 2021
  • English Bundle PDF Course
  • Insurance & Financial Market Awareness Bundle PDF  Course
  • Descriptive Papers for Bank & Insurance Exams
  • Interview Bundle PDF Course
  • General Awareness Smart Analysis
  • All Bank Exams Video Course
  • All Mock Test Series (Platinum Package)
  • All Premium eBooks
₹17990 ₹1999
View Package