Dear Readers, Daily Current Affairs Questions Quiz for SBI, IBPS, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2026 of 14th October 2026. Daily GK quiz online for bank & competitive exam. Here we have given the Daily Current Affairs Quiz based on the previous days Daily Current Affairs updates. Candidates preparing for IBPS, SBI, RBI, RRB, SSC Exam 2026 & other competitive exams can make use of these Current Affairs Quiz.

 

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1) Which of the following public sector Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) is not covered under the RBI’s special foreign exchange facility effective from 12 October 2026?

(a) Indian Oil Corporation Limited

(b) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited

(c) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited

(d) GAIL (India) Limited

(e) None of the above

2) Which of the following was among the states newly included under the RBI’s Benchmark Issuance Strategy (BIS) framework from Q3 FY27?

(a) Gujarat

(b) Assam

(c) Punjab

(d) Odisha

(e) West Bengal

3) What is the minimum investment amount under Ageas Federal Life Insurance’s Aurum Advantage Plan?

(a) USD/EUR/GBP 1,000

(b) USD/EUR/GBP 2,000

(c) USD/EUR/GBP 3,000

(d) USD/EUR/GBP 5,000

(e) USD/EUR/GBP 10,000

4) What was the RBI’s record net purchase of US dollars in July 2026, as reported in its monthly bulletin?

(a) USD 15.65 billion

(b) USD 16.82 billion

(c) USD 18.65 billion

(d) USD 19.77 billion

(e) USD 20.42 billion

 

5) Which state ranked first in attracting capital expenditure projects in FY26, according to the RBI September 2026 Bulletin?

(a) Gujarat

(b) Rajasthan

(c) Karnataka

(d) Maharashtra

(e) Andhra Pradesh

 

6) What was the total inflow into NRI deposit schemes during April–July FY 2026–27, according to RBI data?

(a) USD 24.36 billion

(b) USD 30.89 billion

(c) USD 34.53 billion

(d) USD 36.24 billion

(e) USD 40.82 billion

7) What aggregate Ways and Means Advances (WMA) limit did the RBI advisory committee recommend for state governments?

(a) ₹61,008 crore

(b) ₹60,118 crore

(c) ₹67,839 crore

(d) ₹47,010 crore

(e) ₹41,893 crore

8) What must be exchanged upfront between the transferor and transferee when an Over-the-Counter (OTC) derivative contract is novated under the RBI’s directions?

(a) Mark-to-Market (MTM) value

(b) Settlement fee

(c) Initial margin

(d) Contract premium

(e) Transaction tax

9) Which tribunal disposed of appeals filed by five foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) named in the Hindenburg Research report concerning the Adani Group?

(a) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)

(b) Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)

(c) National Green Tribunal (NGT)

(d) Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT)

(e) Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal (DRAT)

10) Which Union Territory was declared 100% literate under the ULLAS – Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(b) Jammu and Kashmir

(c) Chandigarh

(d) Puducherry

(e) Lakshadweep

 

11) Which company was selected by MeitY to develop a unified agentic AI platform for government services, with DigiLocker as its first implementation?

(a) Kyndryl Solutions

(b) CoRover.ai

(c) Infosys

(d) TCS

(e) Wipro

 

12) What is the total approved cost of the DRISHTI project for modernising property surveys and mapping in Delhi’s unauthorised colonies?

(a) ₹52 crore

(b) ₹60 crore

(c) ₹65 crore

(d) ₹75 crore

(e) ₹80 crore

13) Consider the following statements regarding the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses:

1. The Mission was launched on 11 October 2025 with a total outlay of ₹11,440 crore.
2. The Mission aims to increase pulses production to 350 lakh tonnes by 2030–31.
3. NAFED and NCCF will procure Tur, Urad and Masur at MSP for four years from 2025–26 to 2028–29.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

(e) None of the above

14) Consider the following statements regarding Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023:

1. Section 163 of the BNSS, 2023, replaced Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
2. Section 163 empowers Executive Magistrates to issue written orders to prevent urgent threats to public order, safety and tranquillity.
3. Under Article 239AA, public order and police fall within the legislative competence of the Delhi Legislative Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

(e) None of the above

15) What is the name of the initiative launched by the Kerala Government to improve access to sanitary napkins in public places and during travel?

(a) SAKHI

(b) SWABHIMAAN

(c) NIRAMAYA

(d) SHE-CARE

(e) WOMN

16) Who is the Chief Election Commissioner of India against whom the Kerala Legislative Assembly moved a resolution seeking removal?

(a) Rajiv Kumar

(b) Sukhbir Singh Sandhu

(c) Gyanesh Kumar

(d) Vivek Joshi

(e) Arun Goel

17) Which two Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) were signed between India and Ghana during External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar’s visit in October 2026?

(a) Defence and technology

(b) Agriculture and zoological research

(c) Pharmaceuticals and healthcare

(d) Trade and infrastructure

(e) Education and renewable energy

18) Who among the following visited India from 5 to 7 October 2026, as the President of Switzerland, to strengthen bilateral cooperation?

(a) Guy Parmelin

(b) Ignazio Cassis

(c) Alain Berset

(d) Viola Amherd

(e) Simonetta Sommaruga

 

19) Who has been appointed as the Governor of Kerala (Keralam) in the gubernatorial reshuffle announced by President Droupadi Murmu?

(a) Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar

(b) Dushyant Gautam

(c) Om Prakash Mathur

(d) Braj Mohan Ram

(e) Sudha Yadav

20) Who was elected as the first President of the Indian UniSport Federation (IUSF) in 2026?

(a) Anil Kumar

(b) Abhinav Bindra

(c) Narayana Karthikeyan

(d) Achyuta Samanta

(e) P. T. Usha

21) How many languages are supported by the redeveloped websites of the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the Ministry of Science and Technology through BHASHINI integration?

(a) 12 languages

(b) 15 languages

(c) 18 languages

(d) 22 languages

(e) 25 languages

22) Which Norway-based renewable energy technology company partnered with Tata Power to introduce membrane-based floating solar technology in India?

(a) Statkraft

(b) Scatec

(c) Aker Solutions

(d) Nel ASA

(e) Ocean Sun

23) In news, By purchasing shares worth approximately ₹300 crore in Swiggy, SBI Mutual Fund increased its shareholding to what percentage?

(a) 4.7%

(b) 4.9%

(c) 5.1%

(d) 5.5%

(e) 6.0%

24) Which organisation signed an MoU with the National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC) to promote Indian art, culture and heritage at Namo Bharat stations?

(a) Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA)

(b) Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR)

(c) Sahitya Akademi

(d) Lalit Kala Akademi

(e) National School of Drama (NSD)

25) Which organisation signed an MoU with the National Statistics Office (NSO) under MoSPI to strengthen cooperation in official statistics, research and data analysis?

(a) NITI Aayog

(b) Pahle India Foundation

(c) Indian Statistical Institute

(d) National Council of Applied Economic Research

(e) Centre for Policy Research

26) Who was appointed as a Celebrity Advocate by UNICEF India on the occasion of the International Day of the Girl in October 2026?

(a) Harmanpreet Kaur

(b) Jemimah Rodrigues

(c) Shafali Verma

(d) Mithali Raj

(e) Smriti Mandhana

27) Which musical instrument was played by renowned Carnatic classical music maestro Guruvayur Dorai who passed away in Chennai, Tamil Nadu (TN), at the age of 91?

(a) Mridangam

(b) Sitar

(c) Veena

(d) Tabla

(e) Flute

 

28) What is the theme of World Arthritis Day, observed annually on 12 October 2026?

(a) Move to Improve

(b) Achieve Your Dreams

(c) Living Well with Arthritis

(d) Together Against Arthritis

(e) Act Now for Joint Health

 

29) On which date is the International Day of the Girl Child observed annually?

(a) 8 October

(b) 10 October

(c) 11 October

(d) 12 October

(e) 15 October

30) What is the currency of Ethiopia?

(a) Cedi

(b) Birr

(c) Dinar

(d) Shilling

(e) Nakfa

Answers:

1) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) opened a special foreign exchange (forex) window to meet the entire daily US dollar requirements of three public sector Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) amid evolving forex market conditions.

The three OMCs covered under the special forex facility are Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOC), Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL), and Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL).

The special forex facility became effective on 12 October 2026 and will remain in operation until further notice.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) opened a special foreign exchange (forex) window to meet the entire daily US dollar requirements of three public sector Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) amid evolving forex market conditions.

The three OMCs covered under the special forex facility are Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOC), Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL), and Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL).

The special forex facility became effective on 12 October 2026 and will remain in operation until further notice.

Under the facility, the RBI will sell US dollars to the three public sector OMCs through designated banks to support the orderly functioning of the forex market.

The RBI prohibited Authorised Dealers (ADs) from allowing users to rebook cancelled foreign exchange derivative contracts involving the Indian rupee (INR), covering both deliverable and non-deliverable contracts.

The restriction applies to contracts cancelled with any Authorised Dealer after the issuance of the RBI Directions, while rollover of forex derivative contracts at maturity remains permitted, subject to existing regulations.

The RBI reduced the threshold for undertaking forex derivative transactions to hedge contracted exposures without establishing the underlying exposure from USD 100 million to USD 5 million, across all Authorised Dealers.

The corresponding threshold for taking positions in exchange-traded rupee currency derivatives without establishing underlying exposure was also reduced from USD 100 million to USD 5 million, across all recognised stock exchanges taken together.

 

2) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extended its Benchmark Issuance Strategy (BIS) framework to seven additional states and the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, increasing the total coverage to 26 states and Union Territories.

The newly included states are Assam, Goa, Haryana, Mizoram, Nagaland, and Tripura, along with the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

The latest expansion of the BIS framework will take effect from the October–December quarter of FY 2026–27 (Q3 FY27).

The Benchmark Issuance Strategy (BIS) aims to improve transparency in state government borrowing and provide greater clarity to investors regarding the issuance of State Development Loans (SDLs).

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extended its Benchmark Issuance Strategy (BIS) framework to seven additional states and the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, increasing the total coverage to 26 states and Union Territories.

The newly included states are Assam, Goa, Haryana, Mizoram, Nagaland, and Tripura, along with the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

The latest expansion of the BIS framework will take effect from the October–December quarter of FY 2026–27 (Q3 FY27).

The Benchmark Issuance Strategy (BIS) aims to improve transparency in state government borrowing and provide greater clarity to investors regarding the issuance of State Development Loans (SDLs).

The RBI initially introduced the BIS framework on a pilot basis in Q1 FY27 for nine states: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh.

In Q2 FY27, the framework was extended to nine additional states and the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi, increasing its coverage to 19 states and Union Territories before the latest expansion.

The RBI estimated that total market borrowing by state governments and Union Territories would be approximately ₹3.61 lakh crore during October–December 2026.

3) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Ageas Federal Life Insurance (AFLI) launched the Aurum Advantage Plan, a multi-currency Unit-Linked Insurance Plan (ULIP), at GIFT City, Gujarat.

The Aurum Advantage Plan is the company’s first product launched at GIFT City’s International Financial Services Centre (IFSC).

The launch marks the commencement of Ageas Federal Life Insurance’s operations at GIFT City.

The plan allows customers to invest in three currencies: US dollars (USD), euros (EUR), and British pounds (GBP), while also providing life insurance coverage.

The minimum investment is USD 3,000, EUR 3,000, or GBP 3,000, depending on the currency selected.

Detailed Explanation:

Ageas Federal Life Insurance (AFLI) launched the Aurum Advantage Plan, a multi-currency Unit-Linked Insurance Plan (ULIP), at GIFT City, Gujarat.

The Aurum Advantage Plan is the company’s first product launched at GIFT City’s International Financial Services Centre (IFSC).

The launch marks the commencement of Ageas Federal Life Insurance’s operations at GIFT City.

The plan allows customers to invest in three currencies: US dollars (USD), euros (EUR), and British pounds (GBP), while also providing life insurance coverage.

The investment options include international equities, fixed-income instruments, and gold, enabling diversification across geographical markets and asset classes.

The plan is available to customers of any nationality, irrespective of residential status, including Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs), and Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs).

The minimum investment is USD 3,000, EUR 3,000, or GBP 3,000, depending on the currency selected.

 

4) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recorded a record net purchase of USD 18.65 billion in July 2026, compared with USD 561 million in June 2026, according to its monthly bulletin.

The July 2026 net dollar purchase surpassed the previous record of USD 18.63 billion in June 2021.

During July 2026, the RBI purchased USD 38.42 billion and sold USD 19.77 billion in the foreign exchange market.

The RBI’s concessional swap facility, launched in early June 2026, attracted USD 40.82 billion in inflows by the end of July, mainly through FCNR(B) deposits, external commercial borrowings (ECBs), and overseas foreign currency borrowings.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recorded a record net purchase of USD 18.65 billion in July 2026, compared with USD 561 million in June 2026, according to its monthly bulletin.

The July 2026 net dollar purchase surpassed the previous record of USD 18.63 billion in June 2021.

During July 2026, the RBI purchased USD 38.42 billion and sold USD 19.77 billion in the foreign exchange market.

The RBI’s concessional swap facility, launched in early June 2026, attracted USD 40.82 billion in inflows by the end of July, mainly through FCNR(B) deposits, external commercial borrowings (ECBs), and overseas foreign currency borrowings.

The RBI’s cumulative net dollar purchases in FY2026–27 (FY27) reached USD 4.17 billion by July, reversing the net selling trend recorded in FY26.

India’s foreign exchange reserves increased to USD 692.87 billion at the end of July 2026, from USD 666.93 billion at the end of June 2026.

India’s foreign exchange reserves stood at USD 765.9 billion in the week ended 18 September 2026, according to the latest RBI data cited in the report.

The RBI’s outstanding net short dollar position in the forward market reached a record USD 136.77 billion at the end of July 2026, compared with USD 103.33 billion at the end of June 2026.

5) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) September 2026 Bulletin, private-sector capital expenditure (capex) is projected to rise to ₹3.2 trillion in FY2026–27 (FY27), compared with ₹2.6 trillion in FY2025–26 (FY26).

The aggregate cost of private-sector projects reached a record ₹4.4 trillion in FY26, compared with ₹3.7 trillion in FY25, reflecting sustained private-sector investment confidence.

The infrastructure sector remained the largest contributor to private-sector investment in FY26, accounting for 54.2% of the total project cost.

Within infrastructure, the power sector was the primary driver of investment, followed by roads and bridges.

Detailed Explanation:

According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) September 2026 Bulletin, private-sector capital expenditure (capex) is projected to rise to ₹3.2 trillion in FY2026–27 (FY27), compared with ₹2.6 trillion in FY2025–26 (FY26).

The aggregate cost of private-sector projects reached a record ₹4.4 trillion in FY26, compared with ₹3.7 trillion in FY25, reflecting sustained private-sector investment confidence.

The infrastructure sector remained the largest contributor to private-sector investment in FY26, accounting for 54.2% of the total project cost.

Within infrastructure, the power sector was the primary driver of investment, followed by roads and bridges.

Besides infrastructure, construction, chemicals and pesticides, metal and metal products, and cement accounted for significant shares of the total project cost.

Maharashtra ranked first among Indian states in attracting capital expenditure projects in FY26, followed by Gujarat, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.

These six states collectively accounted for 67.1% of the total project cost in FY26.

The shares of Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Karnataka in the total project cost improved compared with the previous financial year.

The report noted that financing through External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) strengthened during FY26, while funds mobilised through Initial Public Offerings (IPOs) declined.

6) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

According to Reserve Bank of India (RBI) data, inflows into Non-Resident Indian (NRI) deposit schemes surged by 678.2% to USD 36.24 billion during April–July FY2026–27, compared with USD 4.66 billion in the corresponding period of FY2025–26.

The sharp increase in NRI deposits was primarily driven by strong inflows into Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) [FCNR(B)] deposits.

The RBI introduced a concessional swap facility in June 2026, which led to the mobilisation of USD 133 billion by 31 August 2026.

Total outstanding NRI deposits reached USD 200.89 billion at the end of July 2026, compared with USD 167.86 billion in July 2025 and USD 168.51 billion in June 2026.

Detailed Explanation:

According to Reserve Bank of India (RBI) data, inflows into Non-Resident Indian (NRI) deposit schemes surged by 678.2% to USD 36.24 billion during April–July FY2026–27, compared with USD 4.66 billion in the corresponding period of FY2025–26.

The sharp increase in NRI deposits was primarily driven by strong inflows into Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) [FCNR(B)] deposits.

The RBI introduced a concessional swap facility in June 2026, which led to the mobilisation of USD 133 billion by 31 August 2026.

Total outstanding NRI deposits reached USD 200.89 billion at the end of July 2026, compared with USD 167.86 billion in July 2025 and USD 168.51 billion in June 2026.

FCNR(B) deposits recorded inflows of USD 34.53 billion during April–July FY27, compared with USD 772 million in the same period of FY26.

Outstanding FCNR(B) deposits increased to USD 68.28 billion in July 2026.

Non-Resident External (NRE) deposits recorded inflows of USD 207 million during April–July FY27, compared with USD 2.42 billion in the corresponding period of FY26.

Outstanding NRE deposits stood at USD 98.02 billion in July 2026, down from USD 102.03 billion in July 2025.

Non-Resident Ordinary (NRO) deposits recorded inflows of USD 1.51 billion during April–July FY27, compared with USD 1.47 billion in the corresponding period of FY26.

7) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) advisory committee has recommended increasing the aggregate Ways and Means Advances (WMA) limit for state governments by 11.2% to ₹67,839 crore, from the existing ₹61,008 crore.

The committee recommended that WMA limits be reviewed annually based on the latest three years of accounts data, with the annual increase generally capped at 4%; however, a revised limit should not be lower than the existing limit.

Ways and Means Advances (WMA) enable state governments to meet temporary mismatches between cash receipts and expenditure and should not be used to finance budget deficits.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) advisory committee has recommended increasing the aggregate Ways and Means Advances (WMA) limit for state governments by 11.2% to ₹67,839 crore, from the existing ₹61,008 crore.

The committee recommended that WMA limits be reviewed annually based on the latest three years of accounts data, with the annual increase generally capped at 4%; however, a revised limit should not be lower than the existing limit.

Ways and Means Advances (WMA) enable state governments to meet temporary mismatches between cash receipts and expenditure and should not be used to finance budget deficits.

The aggregate WMA limit increased from ₹32,225 crore in February 2016 to ₹41,893 crore in April 2020, ₹47,010 crore in April 2022, ₹60,118 crore in July 2024, and ₹61,008 crore in January 2026.

The committee recommended that state governments spread their market borrowings more evenly throughout the financial year instead of concentrating them in January–March, which can increase borrowing costs and create excess cash balances.

8) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) clarified its directions on the novation of Over-the-Counter (OTC) derivative contracts following feedback on its draft directions.

The Mark-to-Market (MTM) value of an OTC derivative contract must be exchanged upfront between the transferor and transferee when the contract is novated.

The directions apply to novations undertaken after the date of issuance, covering both existing outstanding contracts and contracts entered into subsequently.

Detailed Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) clarified its directions on the novation of Over-the-Counter (OTC) derivative contracts following feedback on its draft directions.

The Mark-to-Market (MTM) value of an OTC derivative contract must be exchanged upfront between the transferor and transferee when the contract is novated.

The directions apply to novations undertaken after the date of issuance, covering both existing outstanding contracts and contracts entered into subsequently.

Novation undertaken by a Central Counterparty (CCP) for settlement purposes is excluded from the directions; however, any subsequent novation of a contract already accepted for settlement by a CCP must comply with the revised directions.

The definition of “remaining party” has been expanded to include a market maker or a Central Counterparty (CCP).

9) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) disposed of appeals filed by five foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) named in the Hindenburg Research report concerning the Adani Group.

The appeals were disposed of after the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) agreed to share the file, nothing prepared by the adjudicating officer.

The five FPIs were LTS Investment Fund, Asia Investment Corporation Mauritius, APMS Investment Fund, Albula Investment Fund, and Cresta Fund.

Detailed Explanation:

The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) disposed of appeals filed by five foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) named in the Hindenburg Research report concerning the Adani Group.

The appeals were disposed of after the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) agreed to share the file, nothing prepared by the adjudicating officer.

The five FPIs were LTS Investment Fund, Asia Investment Corporation Mauritius, APMS Investment Fund, Albula Investment Fund, and Cresta Fund.

The FPIs referred to Rule 4(3) of the SEBI (Procedure for Holding Inquiry and Imposing Penalties) Rules, 1995, in their appeals.

Under Rule 4(3), the FPIs argued that the adjudicating officer must consider the noticees’ response to a show-cause notice before forming an opinion on whether a formal inquiry should be held.

SEBI opposed the maintainability of the appeals before the Securities Appellate Tribunal.

10) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

Lakshadweep was declared a 100% literate Union Territory by Administrator Praful Patel at a function held in Kavaratti, the capital of Lakshadweep.

The achievement was recorded under ULLAS – Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram, also known as the New India Literacy Programme, a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for adult education.

An initial survey identified 1,113 adult non-literate learners across the islands, and all eligible learners cleared the Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test (FLNAT).

Detailed Explanation:

Lakshadweep was declared a 100% literate Union Territory by Administrator Praful Patel at a function held in Kavaratti, the capital of Lakshadweep.

The achievement was recorded under ULLAS – Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram, also known as the New India Literacy Programme, a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for adult education.

An initial survey identified 1,113 adult non-literate learners across the islands, and all eligible learners cleared the Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test (FLNAT).

The Department of Education conducted intensive teaching and assessment programmes for the identified learners.

Teachers and supervisors also volunteered to conduct doorstep and home-based assessments for learners unable or hesitant to attend designated centres. Follow-up assessments and re-testing were arranged to help eligible learners complete the evaluation.

ULLAS targets adults aged 15 years and above who did not receive formal schooling. It aims to provide foundational literacy and numeracy, along with critical life skills such as financial, digital and legal literacy.

 

11) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) selected CoRover.ai to develop a unified agentic Artificial Intelligence (AI) platform for government services, with DigiLocker chosen as its first implementation.

The contract was awarded by the National e-Governance Division (NeGD) following a quality-and-cost-based selection process.

CoRover.ai ranked first with a score of 100, followed by Kyndryl Solutions with 91.24, according to the government’s evaluation document.

Detailed Explanation:

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) selected CoRover.ai to develop a unified agentic Artificial Intelligence (AI) platform for government services, with DigiLocker chosen as its first implementation.

The contract was awarded by the National e-Governance Division (NeGD) following a quality-and-cost-based selection process.

CoRover.ai ranked first with a score of 100, followed by Kyndryl Solutions with 91.24, according to the government’s evaluation document.

The platform aims to provide a common system through which government departments can develop and deploy AI assistants and bots for different services, instead of creating separate systems for individual applications.

The initial DigiLocker implementation is expected to allow users to interact with the platform through an AI assistant for tasks involving documents and connected government systems.

The DigiLocker project includes a four-month development phase, followed by 12 months of operations and maintenance support.

 

12) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

The Central Government approved a ₹65 crore project under DRISHTI (Delhi Revenue and Imaging Survey, Spatial Technology Initiative) to modernise property surveys and mapping in Delhi’s unauthorised colonies under the Pradhan Mantri-Unauthorized Colonies in Delhi Awas Adhikar Yojana (PM-UDAY).

The project’s total cost of ₹65 crore will be funded through a ₹52 crore grant (80%) from the Urban Development Fund (UDF) of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, while the remaining ₹13 crore (20%) will be contributed by the Revenue Department of the Delhi Government.

The Revenue Department of the Delhi Government will implement the project using modern geospatial and Geographic Information System (GIS) technology to make property surveys, mapping and documentation more transparent, systematic and time-bound.

Detailed Explanation:

The Central Government approved a ₹65 crore project under DRISHTI (Delhi Revenue and Imaging Survey, Spatial Technology Initiative) to modernise property surveys and mapping in Delhi’s unauthorised colonies under the Pradhan Mantri-Unauthorized Colonies in Delhi Awas Adhikar Yojana (PM-UDAY).

The project’s total cost of ₹65 crore will be funded through a ₹52 crore grant (80%) from the Urban Development Fund (UDF) of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, while the remaining ₹13 crore (20%) will be contributed by the Revenue Department of the Delhi Government.

The Revenue Department of the Delhi Government will implement the project using modern geospatial and Geographic Information System (GIS) technology to make property surveys, mapping and documentation more transparent, systematic and time-bound.

PM-UDAY Cells will be established in all 13 districts of Delhi, along with a branch at the headquarters, to streamline property surveys and documentation.

The ₹52 crore grant from the Urban Development Fund will be released in four instalments. If procurement is carried out through the Government e-Marketplace (GeM), the entire approved amount may be released in a single instalment, subject to prescribed conditions.

The PM-UDAY Scheme aims to provide ownership and property transfer rights to eligible residents of Delhi’s notified unauthorised colonies, strengthening the legal security of their homes and properties.

 

13) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

The Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses completed its first year, advancing India’s goal of achieving self-sufficiency in pulses by 2030–31 by increasing domestic production, reducing import dependence and improving farmers’ incomes.

Launched on 11 October 2025, the Mission has a total outlay of ₹11,440 crore for the period 2025–26 to 2030–31.

The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) and the National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India (NCCF) will procure 100% of Tur, Urad and Masur offered by registered and willing farmers at the Minimum Support Price (MSP) in participating States for four years, from 2025–26 to 2028–29, under the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA).

Detailed Explanation:

The Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses completed its first year, advancing India’s goal of achieving self-sufficiency in pulses by 2030–31 by increasing domestic production, reducing import dependence and improving farmers’ incomes.

Launched on 11 October 2025, the Mission has a total outlay of ₹11,440 crore for the period 2025–26 to 2030–31.

By 2030–31, the Mission aims to increase pulses production to 350 lakh tonnes, productivity to 1,130 kilograms per hectare and cultivation area to 310 lakh hectares, including expansion into 35 lakh hectares of additional land.

The Mission focuses on Tur, Urad and Masur, promoting high-yielding, pest-resistant and climate-resilient varieties.

It plans to distribute 87.5 lakh free seed kits and 126 lakh quintals of certified seeds over six years. Seed traceability will be supported through the Seed Authentication, Traceability and Holistic Inventory (SATHI) Portal.

The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) and the National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India (NCCF) will procure 100% of Tur, Urad and Masur offered by registered and willing farmers at the Minimum Support Price (MSP) in participating States for four years, from 2025–26 to 2028–29, under the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA).

Region-specific interventions will be implemented across 489 districts, including pulse cultivation in rice-fallow areas, intercropping and crop diversification.

Processing infrastructure: The Mission aims to establish 1,000 processing and packaging units, with financial assistance of up to ₹25 lakh per unit, to promote value addition and rural employment.

14) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

Protests in New Delhi, including demonstrations against the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), reportedly resulted in the detention of young people, journalists and activists.

The Delhi Police invoked Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, to restrict unauthorised assemblies and used Sections 170 and 172 for preventive police action.

Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, Entries 1 (Public Order) and 2 (Police) of the State List generally fall under State Government jurisdiction. However, under Article 239AA, introduced by the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991, public order, police and land are excluded from the legislative competence of the National Capital Territory of Delhi and remain under the Union Government.

Detailed Explanation:

Protests in New Delhi, including demonstrations against the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), reportedly resulted in the detention of young people, journalists and activists.

The Delhi Police invoked Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, to restrict unauthorised assemblies and used Sections 170 and 172 for preventive police action.

The police action attracted criticism, with the United Nations expressing concern over mass detentions and legal experts questioning the procedural grounds.

The Supreme Court intervened in the matter, bringing attention to the balance between maintaining public order and protecting the right to protest.

Under Article 19 of the Constitution of India, citizens enjoy the right to freedom of speech and expression and the right to assemble peacefully without arms, subject to reasonable constitutional restrictions. The use of prohibitory orders must be justified by the circumstances and proportionate to the threat to public order.

In Ram Manohar Lohia v. State of Bihar (1966), the Supreme Court explained the distinction between law and order, public order and security of the State through the concept of three concentric circles. Law and order concerns disturbances affecting individuals, public order involves disruptions affecting the normal life of a community, and security of the State concerns threats to the nation's security or existence.

Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, Entries 1 (Public Order) and 2 (Police) of the State List generally fall under State Government jurisdiction. However, under Article 239AA, introduced by the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991, public order, police and land are excluded from the legislative competence of the National Capital Territory of Delhi and remain under the Union Government.

Section 163 of the BNSS, 2023, replaced the earlier Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. It empowers Executive Magistrates, including District Magistrates and Sub-Divisional Magistrates, to issue written orders to prevent urgent threats to public order, safety and tranquillity. Such orders may restrict assemblies when legally justified.

15) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

The Kerala Government launched WOMN (Women On the Move & Menstrual Needs) to improve access to sanitary napkins for women and girls in public places and during travel.

Inauguration Kerala Minister for Women and Child Development Bindhu Krishna inaugurated the state-level initiative at the Kerala State Road Transport Corporation (KSRTC) Bus Terminal in Thampanoor, Thiruvananthapuram.

The facilities will be extended to 93 additional KSRTC depots across Kerala. The government also plans to expand the initiative beyond bus terminals to major tourist destinations and other public spaces.

Detailed Explanation:

The Kerala Government launched WOMN (Women On the Move & Menstrual Needs) to improve access to sanitary napkins for women and girls in public places and during travel.

Inauguration Kerala Minister for Women and Child Development Bindhu Krishna inaugurated the state-level initiative at the Kerala State Road Transport Corporation (KSRTC) Bus Terminal in Thampanoor, Thiruvananthapuram.

The facilities will be extended to 93 additional KSRTC depots across Kerala. The government also plans to expand the initiative beyond bus terminals to major tourist destinations and other public spaces.

As part of the initial phase, sanitary napkin vending machines and incinerators are being installed at 14 KSRTC hubs, near restroom facilities.

The initiative was launched under the Kerala Government’s 100-day action plan to make sanitary napkins accessible and affordable in public spaces and during travel.

Minister Bindhu Krishna emphasised that menstrual hygiene is essential to women’s health and dignity. The phased implementation aims to promote safe, confident and independent mobility for women.

16) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

Kerala Chief Minister V. D. Satheesan moved a resolution in the Kerala Legislative Assembly seeking the removal of Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar, describing it as a historic moment for the state.

The resolution was supported by legislators of the Congress-led United Democratic Front (UDF) and the Communist Party of India (Marxist)-led Left Democratic Front (LDF), while the three Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) legislators opposed it.

The 140-member Kerala Legislative Assembly comprises 102 UDF members, 35 LDF members and 3 BJP members.

Detailed Explanation:

Kerala Chief Minister V. D. Satheesan moved a resolution in the Kerala Legislative Assembly seeking the removal of Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar, describing it as a historic moment for the state.

The resolution was supported by legislators of the Congress-led United Democratic Front (UDF) and the Communist Party of India (Marxist)-led Left Democratic Front (LDF), while the three Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) legislators opposed it.

The 140-member Kerala Legislative Assembly comprises 102 UDF members, 35 LDF members and 3 BJP members.

The resolution raised concerns over alleged irregularities in the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, the exclusion of eligible voters and the impartiality of the Election Commission of India. It called for corrective measures to ensure that no eligible citizen is denied the right to vote.

The resolution outlined demands to address irregularities in the SIR process, restore voting rights to eligible citizens allegedly excluded from electoral rolls, initiate proceedings to remove the Chief Election Commissioner and reform the committee responsible for selecting Election Commissioners.

It proposed a selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India, with the aim of strengthening the independence and credibility of the Election Commission.

17) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

External Affairs Minister (EAM) Dr. S. Jaishankar, Union Minister for the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), undertook a 5-day official visit to three African countries — Ghana, Côte d’Ivoire, and Ethiopia — from 6 to 10 October 2026.

During his visit to Ghana, Dr. S. Jaishankar held bilateral talks with Samuel Okudzeto Ablakwa, Ghana’s Foreign Minister.

The visit to Ghana resulted in the signing of two Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) in the fields of agriculture and zoological research.

Detailed Explanation:

External Affairs Minister (EAM) Dr. S. Jaishankar, Union Minister for the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), undertook a 5-day official visit to three African countries — Ghana, Côte d’Ivoire, and Ethiopia — from 6 to 10 October 2026.

The visit aimed to strengthen India–Africa bilateral relations, particularly in trade, investment, and infrastructure development.

During his visit to Ghana, Dr. S. Jaishankar held bilateral talks with Samuel Okudzeto Ablakwa, Ghana’s Foreign Minister.

India and Ghana reviewed cooperation in trade and investment, development partnership, pharmaceuticals, capacity building, defence, technology, and people-to-people ties.

The visit to Ghana resulted in the signing of two Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) in the fields of agriculture and zoological research.

During his visit to Côte d’Ivoire, Dr. S. Jaishankar held talks in Abidjan with Nialé Kaba, Minister of State for Foreign Affairs and International Cooperation.

India and Côte d’Ivoire discussed cooperation in trade, infrastructure, agriculture, and healthcare.

18) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Guy Parmelin, President of Switzerland, undertook a 3-day official state visit to India from 5 to 7 October 2026 at the invitation of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

The visit aimed to strengthen India–Switzerland bilateral cooperation in trade, investment, technology, and economic engagement under the India–EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA).

Swiss President Guy Parmelin received a ceremonial Guard of Honour at Rashtrapati Bhavan from President Droupadi Murmu.

Detailed Explanation:

Guy Parmelin, President of Switzerland, undertook a 3-day official state visit to India from 5 to 7 October 2026 at the invitation of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

The visit aimed to strengthen India–Switzerland bilateral cooperation in trade, investment, technology, and economic engagement under the India–EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA).

Swiss President Guy Parmelin received a ceremonial Guard of Honour at Rashtrapati Bhavan from President Droupadi Murmu.

Guy Parmelin held bilateral talks with Prime Minister Narendra Modi at Hyderabad House, New Delhi, focusing on trade, investment, science, technology, mobility, culture, and people-to-people ties.

The 2nd India–EFTA Prosperity Summit was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, with the participation of Guy Parmelin and Narendra Modi.

The summit marked the first anniversary of the India–EFTA TEPA, which came into force on 1 October 2025.

India and Switzerland signed five key agreements to strengthen cooperation in mobility, science, and technology.

19) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

President Droupadi Murmu appointed Governors in six States as part of a major gubernatorial reshuffle.

Om Prakash Mathur, the former Governor of Sikkim, has been appointed as the Governor of Kerala (Keralam).

Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar, the former Governor of Kerala, has been appointed as the Governor of Tamil Nadu after holding its additional charge since March 2026.

Detailed Explanation:

President Droupadi Murmu appointed Governors in six States as part of a major gubernatorial reshuffle.

Om Prakash Mathur, the former Governor of Sikkim, has been appointed as the Governor of Kerala (Keralam).

Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar, the former Governor of Kerala, has been appointed as the Governor of Tamil Nadu after holding its additional charge since March 2026.

Dushyant Gautam has been appointed as the Governor of Sikkim.

Braj Mohan Ram, a senior BJP leader from the Palamu region of Jharkhand, has been appointed as the Governor of Odisha.

Sudha Yadav, a former BJP MP, has been appointed as the Governor of Karnataka

20) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

Prof. Achyuta Samanta, founder of the Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology (KIIT) and the Kalinga Institute of Social Sciences (KISS), was elected the first President of the Indian UniSport Federation (IUSF).

The election took place at the first Annual General Meeting (AGM) of the IUSF, held in New Delhi, Delhi.

The Indian UniSport Federation (IUSF) was established in 2026 with the approval of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS).

Detailed Explanation:

Prof. Achyuta Samanta, founder of the Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology (KIIT) and the Kalinga Institute of Social Sciences (KISS), was elected the first President of the Indian UniSport Federation (IUSF).

The election took place at the first Annual General Meeting (AGM) of the IUSF, held in New Delhi, Delhi.

The Indian UniSport Federation (IUSF) was established in 2026 with the approval of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS).

The IUSF aims to provide a common platform for universities across India to promote university-level sports.

Achyuta Samanta served as a Rajya Sabha Member of Parliament from Odisha in 2018.

21) Answer: D

Short Explanation:

Dr. Jitendra Singh, Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for the Ministry of Science and Technology (MoS&T) and the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), launched the redeveloped websites of the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the Ministry of Science and Technology.

The websites were redeveloped to make scientific information, research opportunities, and government services more accessible to citizens.

The portals support 22 languages through integration with BHASHINI (Bhasha Interface for India).

Detailed Explanation:

Dr. Jitendra Singh, Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for the Ministry of Science and Technology (MoS&T) and the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), launched the redeveloped websites of the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the Ministry of Science and Technology.

The websites were redeveloped to make scientific information, research opportunities, and government services more accessible to citizens.

The portals support 22 languages through integration with BHASHINI (Bhasha Interface for India).

The redeveloped websites comply with the Digital Brand Identity Manual (DBIM) 3.0 and the Guidelines for Indian Government Websites and Apps (GIGW) 3.0.

The portals provide single-window access to information on research grants, fellowships, government schemes, calls for proposals, application guidelines, awards, results, and notifications.

22) Answer: E

Short Explanation:

Tata Power Company Limited partnered with Ocean Sun, a Norway-based renewable energy technology company, to introduce membrane-based floating solar technology in India.

The partnership agreement was signed on 7 October 2026 during the 2nd India–European Free Trade Association (EFTA) Prosperity Summit in New Delhi, Delhi.

The partnership aims to strengthen India–Norway cooperation in clean energy.

The project involves a floating solar pilot of nearly 300 kilowatt-peak (kWp) at the Mulshi reservoir in Maharashtra.

Detailed Explanation:

Tata Power Company Limited partnered with Ocean Sun, a Norway-based renewable energy technology company, to introduce membrane-based floating solar technology in India.

The partnership agreement was signed on 7 October 2026 during the 2nd India–European Free Trade Association (EFTA) Prosperity Summit in New Delhi, Delhi.

The partnership aims to strengthen India–Norway cooperation in clean energy.

The project involves a floating solar pilot of nearly 300 kilowatt-peak (kWp) at the Mulshi reservoir in Maharashtra.

The Mulshi reservoir project will mark Ocean Sun’s first installation in India.

Under the partnership, Ocean Sun will provide the technology, while Tata Power will own the project assets.

Ocean Sun’s membrane-based floating solar technology places solar photovoltaic (PV) modules on a floating hydro-elastic membrane on the water’s surface.

The pilot project will evaluate energy generation, Capacity Utilisation Factor (CUF), reliability, operations and maintenance (O&M), costs and commercial viability.

23) Answer: C

Short Explanation:

SBI Mutual Fund increased its shareholding in Swiggy from approximately 4.7% to 5.1% by purchasing shares worth around ₹300 crore.

The investment was made through open-market transactions, making SBI Mutual Fund a significant institutional shareholder in Swiggy, a food delivery and quick-commerce company.

SBI Mutual Fund’s shareholding crossed the 5% threshold in Swiggy following the share purchase.

Detailed Explanation:

SBI Mutual Fund increased its shareholding in Swiggy from approximately 4.7% to 5.1% by purchasing shares worth around ₹300 crore.

The investment was made through open-market transactions, making SBI Mutual Fund a significant institutional shareholder in Swiggy, a food delivery and quick-commerce company.

SBI Mutual Fund’s shareholding crossed the 5% threshold in Swiggy following the share purchase.

The investment came amid pressure on Swiggy’s stock price and concerns over business performance, particularly the costs of expanding its quick-commerce operations.

SBI Mutual Fund is one of India’s oldest and largest asset management companies (AMCs) and is managed by SBI Funds Management Limited.

SBI Mutual Fund was established in 1987 and is registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

State Bank of India (SBI) holds approximately 63% of SBI Mutual Fund, while Amundi of France holds around 37% through Amundi India Holding.

24) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

The National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) to promote Indian art, culture and heritage at Namo Bharat stations.

The partnership aims to develop stations into cultural hubs through exhibitions, literary events, educational workshops and public lectures, offering commuters opportunities to explore Indian history and cultural traditions during their journeys.

Detailed Explanation:

The National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) to promote Indian art, culture and heritage at Namo Bharat stations.

The partnership aims to develop stations into cultural hubs through exhibitions, literary events, educational workshops and public lectures, offering commuters opportunities to explore Indian history and cultural traditions during their journeys.

The collaboration is particularly significant for the Delhi–Meerut Namo Bharat corridor, which connects Delhi, a major centre of Indian politics and culture, with Meerut, known for its historical monuments and association with the First War of Independence in 1857.

The corridor serves approximately 1.1 lakh daily commuters and has recorded more than 4.5 crore journeys, highlighting its growing use as a regional transport service.

Under the MoU, IGNCA will contribute its expertise in preserving and promoting India's cultural heritage, while NCRTC will provide suitable platforms at Namo Bharat stations for cultural programmes.

25) Answer: B

Short Explanation:

The National Statistics Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Pahle India Foundation (PIF), New Delhi, to strengthen cooperation in official statistics, research, data analysis, capacity building and knowledge sharing.

The MoU establishes a broad framework for collaboration in areas of mutual interest, with specific activities to be undertaken according to the priorities of MoSPI.

Detailed Explanation:

The National Statistics Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Pahle India Foundation (PIF), New Delhi, to strengthen cooperation in official statistics, research, data analysis, capacity building and knowledge sharing.

The MoU establishes a broad framework for collaboration in areas of mutual interest, with specific activities to be undertaken according to the priorities of MoSPI.

The signing ceremony was attended by Dr. Saurabh Garg, Secretary, MoSPI; P. R. Meshram, Director General, MoSPI; Dr. Rajiv Kumar, Chairperson, Pahle India Foundation; and Ashish Kumar, Chief Statistician, Pahle India Foundation.

The MoU was signed by Sunitha Bhaskar, Additional Director General, MoSPI, and Ravi Pokharna, Executive Director, Pahle India Foundation.

Senior officials of MoSPI and representatives of the Pahle India Foundation also attended the ceremony.

26) Answer: E

The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) India appointed Indian cricketer Smriti Mandhana as a Celebrity Advocate, coinciding with the International Day of the Girl.

Mandhana will advocate equal opportunities, health and well-being for adolescent girls across India, including their participation in sports and opportunities to realise their potential.

She has previously supported UNICEF and the International Cricket Council (ICC) campaigns promoting gender equality and life skills, as well as UNICEF’s “Promise to Children” campaign. She emphasised that every child should have the opportunity to dream big.

Sachin Tendulkar, UNICEF Regional Goodwill Ambassador for South Asia, welcomed Mandhana to UNICEF India through a social media post on 11 October 2026.

27) Answer: A

Short Explanation:

Renowned Mridangam maestro Guruvayur Dorai, a distinguished exponent of Carnatic classical music, passed away in Chennai, Tamil Nadu (TN), at the age of 91.

Guruvayur Dorai was born on 2 July 1935 in Guruvayur, Kerala.

He received the Padma Shri in 2025 in the field of Arts for his outstanding contribution to Carnatic music and mridangam playing.

The Mridangam is a double-headed percussion instrument used in Carnatic classical music.

Detailed Explanation:

Renowned Mridangam maestro Guruvayur Dorai, a distinguished exponent of Carnatic classical music, passed away in Chennai, Tamil Nadu (TN), at the age of 91.

Guruvayur Dorai was born on 2 July 1935 in Guruvayur, Kerala.

He received the Padma Shri in 2025 in the field of Arts for his outstanding contribution to Carnatic music and mridangam playing.

The Mridangam is a double-headed percussion instrument used in Carnatic classical music.

Guruvayur Dorai began performing at the age of eight, accompanying renowned Carnatic musician Chembai Vaidyanatha Bhagavathar for his debut performance (arangetram).

His musical training included Palghat Subbaiyar and E. P. Narayana Pisharody, followed by advanced training under Palani Subramania Pillai.

He served as the regular mridangam accompanist for M. S. Subbulakshmi for many years and performed with several leading Carnatic vocalists and instrumentalists.

 

28) Answer: B

World Arthritis Day is observed annually on 12 October to raise awareness about arthritis and its impact on people’s lives.

The theme of World Arthritis Day 2026 is “Achieve Your Dreams.”

The Arthritis Foundation established World Arthritis Day to promote awareness of arthritis and related joint conditions.

29) Answer: C

The International Day of the Girl Child is observed annually on 11 October to promote girls’ rights and address the challenges they face worldwide.

2026 Theme: “End child marriage and invest in girls' rights!”

Background: In 1995, the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action highlighted the rights of girls and called for gender equality and better opportunities for girls worldwide. It marked an important international commitment to advancing the rights and empowerment of girls.

 

30) Answer: B

About Ethiopia :

President : Taye Atske Selassie

Prime Minister : Abiy Ahmed

Capital : Addis Ababa

Currency : Birr